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Doctrines based on a particular Bible version?


Gerr

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While it is true that some of our SDA beliefs are undermined by some versions if followed without further investigation, e.g. Christ going to the most holy place instead of the holy place upon His ascension per NIV, NLT, etc., do SDA doctrines stand only solidly on the KJV as some claim?

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Not to mention those that translate, Lord's Day as Sunday. It is good to be aware. The KJV is not perfect, either. I don't think there is a perfect translation.

But the translations are not as varied and wacky as the notes in study Bibles. I pulled the Common Man's bibles we had after having a look at the study notes. I found what I thought to be a strange over-attention to the anti-Christ and New World Order. I much prefer to focus on Jesus than monsters in Revelation...

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Isaiah 32:17 And the work of righteousness shall be peace; and the effect of righteousness quietness and assurance for ever.

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As I understand it, the doctrines came about not by vote but by heavy study. I don't know if you have ever read the available materials of the time but the scholarship of those old books are exceptional. Try downloading the books that EGW quotes from in her work. The latest one I downloaded is 677 pages long. Those books are pretty hefty reading!

Isaiah 32:17 And the work of righteousness shall be peace; and the effect of righteousness quietness and assurance for ever.

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And talking about the KJV... There are some KJV-only advocates that believe WAY differently than Seventh-Day Adventists. How does that happen? I am impressed that the Holy Spirit plays a big part (and must play a big part) in guiding a seeker.

Isaiah 32:17 And the work of righteousness shall be peace; and the effect of righteousness quietness and assurance for ever.

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And then there are some doctrines that are biblically sound, but our "proof texts" are based on peculiarities of English grammar. For example, the doctrine of the Trinity was established as far back as the Nicean council of the 4th century, long before there was an English language. But I remember being taught the proof text of John 16:13, 14 showing that the Holy Spirit is a "he" not an "it". But in almost all European languages other than English, pronouns have gender such that inanimate objects and impersonal concepts are rendered as "he" or "she" depending on the grammatical structures. In French, for example, the noun "personne" is always feminine even when referring to a man; similarly "sa majesté" (His Majesty or Her Majesty) is always feminine even when referring to a king.

Another trinitarian "proof text" is the use of the plural pronoun in Genesis 1:26. However, in French for example, one often uses the plural pronoun in formal, legal or academic writing to refer to the author, even if the paper is written by a single person and not a team. Of course modern French grammar and usage are irrelevant to ancient Hebrew grammar and usage but it is an example where one must be careful not to make too much out of grammatical peculiarities.

I believe trinitarinism is sound, but I don't believe that the use of the masculine pronoun in John 16 or the plural pronoun in Genesis 1 is evidence for the doctrine.

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God never said "Thou shalt not think".

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I would advise people to keep well away from the King James Version Only movement. It is openly founded on Racism and the superiority complex that G-d only gave his perfect translation of the Bible in 1611 to white people.

The fact is that there were various Bibles available before the 1611 KJV, the Russian Orthodox Church are believed to have had the first copies of Bibles distributed amongst their churches for public reading. Shock horror if true, Russians are actually the chosen people not King Henry's Protestants....

The 1611 KJV and the other KJV versions that come after it also have a number of documented errors in translation which each edition has tried to correct.

One thing that I learned in college is that you cannot take the 1611 KJV or any of the other KJV's and use that as a basis to translate the scriptures into a language like Russian or Chinese for example. The correct way is to make the translation directly from the texts that the KJV and other Bibles are translated from,otherwise it will not make any sense at all to the reader as you cannot anglisice words into other languages and retain context.

As for SDA doctrines being reliant on the KJV, I disagree, SDA theologians are happy to debate SDA theology with any leading scholars from the likes of Fuller theological seminary and anywhere else. If they needed the KJV to prove their case it would fall over very quickly. Yet my experience in college was the reverse,. my lecturer and several of our Baptist students were advocates of the soul sleep theology of the SDA's. The SDA teaching on hell not being for eternity was also viewed favourably by several students. I supect this is because of study on the original texts as opposed to simply just study of the KJV or any other version of the Scripture.

 

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  • 4 weeks later...

Many countries where English is not the native tongue do not have the KJV. Adventism has no Biblical problems in there countries. 

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