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Bible PROPHECY for the ENDtime


jsm

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so musicman, cardw, and Dr. Rich are the same user.

sky

"The merits of His sacrifice are sufficient to present to the Father in our behalf." S.C.36.

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so musicman, cardw, and Dr. Rich are the same user.

sky

No sky, whatever gave you that idea? Dr. Rich, Musicman, and wayfinder are all three friends, pushing the same erronious agenda. cardw is just an atheist who likes to spew his anti-God nonsense in front of adventists for some reason.

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so musicman, cardw, and Dr. Rich are the same user.

As Richard Holbrook said, they are different individuals. Musicman, Dr. Rich, and Wayfinder are friends and attend a Seventh-day Adventist church. In fact, Wayfinder has been teaching a Sabbath SChool class for over 15 years. They have operated a radio program for quite a while. All three are members of the SDA church and believe that the SDA Church is the kingdom of God.

cardw, on the other hand, is a former member of the church and an agnostic.

John 3:16-17

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life. [17] For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him.

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...The fact that the conclusions that we have drawn in any number of areas of Scriptural understanding are diametrically opposed to commonly held belief does not mean that we are automatically wrong, yet in your mind it does. Breaking away from the common is never easy but not always a bad thing.

I'm not talking about your conclusions or even about your beliefs. I'm talking about the Greek language and the fact that your book gives misinformation about the translation of Acts 2: 3; Revelation 17: 14 and 19: 7.

Again, the Greek noun in Acts 2: 3 is plural, not singular. Therefore, all translations read "tongues," never "a tongue."

What would you think of someone who doesn't know English but who insists on translating "tongues" as "a tongue" even after you show them their mistake?

In Rev. 17: 14, the Greek noun translated "lamb" or "lambkin" in both instances is exactly the same. The Concordant Literal Translation reads, "These will be battling with the Lambkin, and the Lambkin will be conquering them, [seeing] that it is Lord of lords and King of kings, and [those] with It [are] called and chosen and fatihful."

In Rev. 19: 7, the pronoun is masculne/neuter singular, and it cannot possibly be translated as a plural pronoun, "their."

The word for "lamb" or "Lambkin" is neuter, and therefore the Greek pronoun, autou, is either translated as masculine, "his" or as neuter, "It."

We first have to understand the correct translation before we deal with the ideas you get from the translation-- or, as in this case, your mistranslation.

I would like to know what your linguistic evidence and reasoning is for translating these verses as you do in your book and in your article.

John 3:16-17

For God so loved the world, that he gave his only Son, that whoever believes in him should not perish but have eternal life. [17] For God did not send his Son into the world to condemn the world, but in order that the world might be saved through him.

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Rev. 17:14 "Lamb" = 721 arnion ar-nee'-on diminutive from 704; a lambkin:--lamb. see GREEK for 704.

Context reveals whether this word is used to mean a single lamb or multiple lambs.

When they had finished breakfast, Jesus said to Simon Peter, “Simon, son of John, do you love me more than these?” He said to him, “Yes, Lord; you know that I love you.” He said to him, “Feed my lambs.” John 21:15.

John used the same word as he did in Rev. 17:14, the diminutive form meaning 'little lambs'.

Peter was grieved because he said to him the third time, “Do you love me?” and he said to him, “Lord, you know everything; you know that I love you.” Jesus said to him, “Feed my sheep. John 21:17.

Here John uses a different word: 4263 probaton prob'-at-on probably neuter of a presumed derivative of 4260; something that walks forward (a quadruped), i.e. (specially), a sheep (literally or figuratively):--sheep(-fold). see GREEK for 4260.

This could then possibly be literally translated, "Feed those who are on probation, those who are My sheep".

Why would John use this word unless he was trying to make a distinction between 'little lambs' and the 'Lamb'.

Your lamb shall be without blemish, a male a year old. You may take it from the sheep or from the goats, Ex.12:5.

The word for year = 8141 shaneh shaw-neh' (in plura or (feminine) shanah {shaw-naw'}; from 8138; a year (as a revolution of time):--+ whole age, X long, + old, year(X -ly). see HEBREW for 08138.

This indicates a mature lamb one full year of age. This could not be described in any way as a 'little lamb' or 'lambkin'.

So there does seem to be a distinction between a "Lamb" and a "lambkin" or "little lamb".

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