1 Corinthians 15:29

[barnz]

I'm having difficulty understanding what this verse means. It seems like they are talking about baptism for the dead, but I don't know. Can anyone clarify?

[Doge]

hi .. hmm that is a puzzler.. but seems you're not the first to ask it.. to me the explanation that Paul is driving home the fact of resurrection and pointing out inconsistencies with those that disputed it makes sense.

http://www.watchman.org/lds/baptdead.htm

http://carm.org/baptism-for-the-dead-in-1-corinthians-15-29

[Gibs]

1Co 15:29 Else what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?

Sounds like some are taking baptism for a dead one maybe not even in Christ.

I find he is letting it be known the dead can not be helped.

I think you get your answer in 1 cor 15:32 "what advantageth it me, if the dead rise not?"

1Jo 4:4 ¶ Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world.

[Gail]

It would be helpful to know what the customs of the people were in those days and why they did it.

Where's Kevin H?

[12tribes]

This indeed is a difficult passage. To read the context Paul is talking about the resurrection so needs to be understood in light of that. We know one thing it cannot teach and that is for people to be baptized for the dead. It could mean that people are baptized because of the resurrection. Some things Paul said are hard understand and this is one of those things. We need to remember what it is not teaching and the Bible never contradicts itself and to also read the context and interpret it according to context. I would love to hear others thoughts.

[Ron Amnsn]

This passage has often puzzled me. As I was taking another look at it today in the context of Paul's letter, this possible explanation came to me.

Starting in verse 12 Paul is countering what some were saying-- that there is no resurrection of the dead:

Now if Christ is preached, that He has been raised from the dead, how do some among you say that there is no resurrection of the dead?

But if there is no resurrection of the dead, not even Christ has been raised; and if Christ has not been raised, then our preaching is vain, your faith also is vain.

Moreover we are even found to be false witnesses of God, because we testified against God that He raised Christ, whom He did not raise, if in fact the dead are not raised.

For if the dead are not raised, not even Christ has been raised; and if Christ has not been raised, your faith is worthless; you are still in your sins.

Then those also who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished. If we have hoped in Christ in this life only, we are of all men most to be pitied.

But now Christ has been raised from the dead, the first fruits of those who are asleep. (1 Cor 15:12-20)

Then in verses 21-28 Paul goes into a parenthetical discussion of how death is abolished by Messiah as the first fruits.

In verse 29 Paul resumes the main discussion of the hopelessness of our condition if Messiah was not raised from the dead. The "otherwise" is referring back to his statement in verse 20. Paul's argument goes something like this, "[v20] But now Christ has been raised from the dead ... [v29] otherwise Christ himself is still among the dead and what will those do who are baptized for Christ if he is among the dead?".

In other words, "What's the point of being baptized into Christ, if there was no resurrection and Christ is still among the dead?"

Does that make any sense?