Overaged Posted February 12, 2011 Posted February 12, 2011 In many societies polygamy—one husband with more than one wife—is accepted as a normal and legal form of marriage. For Christians living in most Western countries polygamy is both sinful and illegal. For decades Christian churches have debated what to do with polygamous families who are converted to Christianity. Should the family be broken up? Should church membership be granted to polygamists? Quote "People [rarely] see...the bright light which is in the clouds..." (Job 37:21)"I cannot know why suddenly the stormshould rage so fiercely round me in it's wrathBut this I know: God watches all my pathAnd I can trust""God helps us to draw strength from the storm" - OveragedFaith makes things possible; it does not make them easy, Steps To Christ
MariaS Posted February 12, 2011 Posted February 12, 2011 Interesting to think about Overaged, I wonder what will other people say. I am eager to read..should you have the answer, do share. GBU Quote The rules of life - Love and serve God - Remember choices, not circumstances, determine the flavor of our lives - Live each day so that you'll never be afraid of tomorrow nor ashamed of yesterday
Moderators Gerr Posted February 12, 2011 Moderators Posted February 12, 2011 In many societies polygamy—one husband with more than one wife—is accepted as a normal and legal form of marriage. For Christians living in most Western countries polygamy is both sinful and illegal. For decades Christian churches have debated what to do with polygamous families who are converted to Christianity. Should the family be broken up? Should church membership be granted to polygamists? IMHO, it would be more sinful to break up the families that have children. Where no children are involved, then let the woman/women decide whether to leave the polygamous relationship. Quote
MariaS Posted February 12, 2011 Posted February 12, 2011 How about a couple who have commited adultery, got married and realised later they should go back to their own families they were married to earlier. The interesting part is, the second marriage has produced one child. BTW, the man did not divorce his frist wife.. Question is: Should he leave the second young wife and go back to the first wife? Quote The rules of life - Love and serve God - Remember choices, not circumstances, determine the flavor of our lives - Live each day so that you'll never be afraid of tomorrow nor ashamed of yesterday
Moderators Gerr Posted February 12, 2011 Moderators Posted February 12, 2011 How then did it happen that he was able to marry the second without divorcing the first? Quote
Woody Posted February 12, 2011 Posted February 12, 2011 Quote: Should he leave the second young wife and go back to the first wife? The 2nd one is illegitimate. It doesn't stand. It's simply an affair. Quote May we be one so that the world may be won. Christian from the cradle to the grave I believe in Hematology.
SivartM Posted February 13, 2011 Posted February 13, 2011 Should he leave the second young wife and go back to the first wife? It depends on if the first wife would even want him back. Quote "Always forgive your enemies; nothing annoys them so much." - Oscar Wilde�Do to others whatever you would like them to do to you. This is the essence of all that is taught in the law and the prophets." - Jesus
Administrators Gail Posted February 13, 2011 Administrators Posted February 13, 2011 Biblically he would not have been allowed to return to the first one. Quote Isaiah 32:17 And the work of righteousness shall be peace; and the effect of righteousness quietness and assurance for ever.
carolaa Posted February 14, 2011 Posted February 14, 2011 Biblically he would not have been allowed to return to the first one. Do you have a reference for that? Quote
carolaa Posted February 14, 2011 Posted February 14, 2011 Quote: Should he leave the second young wife and go back to the first wife? The 2nd one is illegitimate. It doesn't stand. It's simply an affair. Is that your opinion, or is that from another source? Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted February 14, 2011 Moderators Posted February 14, 2011 Originally Posted By: Gail Biblically he would not have been allowed to return to the first one. Do you have a reference for that? Jer 3:1 Quote
Administrators Gail Posted February 14, 2011 Administrators Posted February 14, 2011 Originally Posted By: Gail Biblically he would not have been allowed to return to the first one. Do you have a reference for that? Jer 3:1 Deuteronomy 24:1-4, where there are laws regarding divorce Quote Isaiah 32:17 And the work of righteousness shall be peace; and the effect of righteousness quietness and assurance for ever.
Overaged Posted February 15, 2011 Author Posted February 15, 2011 Jer 3:1, in context, is God addressing the nation of Israel; not marriage. The analogy He uses here, is not proven to be a "command" for today. Quote "People [rarely] see...the bright light which is in the clouds..." (Job 37:21)"I cannot know why suddenly the stormshould rage so fiercely round me in it's wrathBut this I know: God watches all my pathAnd I can trust""God helps us to draw strength from the storm" - OveragedFaith makes things possible; it does not make them easy, Steps To Christ
hch Posted February 15, 2011 Posted February 15, 2011 In many societies polygamy—one husband with more than one wife—is accepted as a normal and legal form of marriage. For Christians living in most Western countries polygamy is both sinful and illegal. For decades Christian churches have debated what to do with polygamous families who are converted to Christianity. Should the family be broken up? Should church membership be granted to polygamists? Quote His child Henry Bible student/Author https://www.loudcry101.com
Moderators Gerr Posted February 15, 2011 Moderators Posted February 15, 2011 Originally Posted By: Gerry Cabalo Jer 3:1' date=' in context, is God addressing the nation of Israel; not marriage. The analogy He uses here, is not proven to be a "command" for today. [/quote'] If Jeremiah thought that what Moses wrote (Dt 24:1-4 many centuries before was applicable in his time, what makes you think it is no longer applicable in our time? Can you show me where God changed His mind about this being no longer evil? While Jeremiah was indeed addressing Israel's spiritual adultery, why would he make a spiritual application something that would have no literal moral force? Quote
Overaged Posted February 16, 2011 Author Posted February 16, 2011 Did I say "God changed His mind?" Read my post again. I asked if the text actually means what you say it does. It is easy to make an individual verse mean what we think it does. For eg Psa 37:6 And he shall bring forth thy righteousness as the light, and thy judgment as the noonday. Now some would get all feel-good about this, while others flee to this: Isa 64:6 But we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags; and we all do fade as a leaf; and our iniquities, like the wind, have taken us away. Which is it that you are saying about marriage Gerry? Filthy Rags or Light? Can you prove your answer, so that we have a Biblical explanation for the OP? Quote "People [rarely] see...the bright light which is in the clouds..." (Job 37:21)"I cannot know why suddenly the stormshould rage so fiercely round me in it's wrathBut this I know: God watches all my pathAnd I can trust""God helps us to draw strength from the storm" - OveragedFaith makes things possible; it does not make them easy, Steps To Christ
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