Jump to content
ClubAdventist

How does one reconcile Leviticus 24:19-20 with Matt 5:38-39?


Recommended Posts

Posted

The relevant texts:

19 If a man injures his neighbor, just as he has done, so it shall be done to him: 20 fracture for fracture, eye for eye, tooth for tooth; just as he has injured a man, so it shall be inflicted on him. Leviticus 24:19-20

“ You have heard that it was said, ‘ An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth.’ 39 But I say to you, do not resist an evil person; but whoever slaps you on your right cheek, turn the other to him also. Matthew 5:38-39

Jesus in Matthew is quoting none other than Himself. Why did He teach one thing in Leviticus and a completely opposite teaching in Matthew?

Remember Adventists Online?

Posted

God’s mercy and justice are both part of his character, like two sides of the same coin. (Exodus 34)

When Jesus came the first time he exemplified mercy, compassion and forgiveness but he did not execute justice on the sinner. He was a living example of ‘turning the other cheek’.

We need to remember, however, that when he comes back the second time he will execute justice upon the guilty sinner who has rejected him and his love. At that time he will no longer ‘turn the other cheek’ but will become the angry and violent God that we read about in the book of Revelation.

It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the Living God.

Posted

The relevant texts:

19 If a man injures his neighbor, just as he has done, so it shall be done to him: 20 fracture for fracture, eye for eye, tooth for tooth; just as he has injured a man, so it shall be inflicted on him. Leviticus 24:19-20

“ You have heard that it was said, ‘ An eye for an eye, and a tooth for a tooth.’ 39 But I say to you, do not resist an evil person; but whoever slaps you on your right cheek, turn the other to him also. Matthew 5:38-39

Jesus in Matthew is quoting none other than Himself. Why did He teach one thing in Leviticus and a completely opposite teaching in Matthew?

When Jesus quoted or referred to scripture he usually said, "It is written ..." or "What is written in the Scriptures?".

When he said,"You have heard that it was said ..." he was probably not referring to what was written in the Law of Moses, but rather to the opinions of the Jewish sages contained in the traditional "oral law". Those man-made commentaries on particular passages of the Law were well-known, but according to custom were not at that time written down. Hence, "You have heard that it was said ..."

Leviticus 24:19-20 contained instructions for those who were appointed to serve as judges in Israel. In Matthew 5 Jesus is giving instructions to individuals (who are not judges) on how to handle offenses that are not likely going to end up before a judge.

  • Members
Posted

Excellent point Ron

phkrause

When the righteous are in authority, the people rejoice; But when a wicked man rules, the people groan. Proverbs 29;2
Posted

Yes. Additionally it might be noted that the eye for an eye was purposely designed to put perimeters around the desire for revenge.It is not natural to human nature to desire only an eye for an eye exacting of revenge.Thus the law served as a legal barrier to unjust retribution for some very important physical damages. It would be highly unlikely that Jesus was teaching that if somebody poked out your left eye that you should ask them to poke out your right eye also.Or offer them a molar after they disposed with one of your bicuspids.

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

If you find some value to this community, please help out with a few dollars per month.



×
×
  • Create New...