I need some help from Greek scholars

[joeb]

When I read my Bible I always use Strong's and look up the definitions of the Greek. What I'd like is for someone to tell me why a certain verse is translated the way it is, as from looking at Strong's the verse in question says something different that all the translations I've seen say it does.

Quote:

22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever shall say, Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.

23 Therefore if thou bring thy gift to the altar, and there rememberest that thy brother hath ought against thee;

24 Leave there thy gift before the altar, and go thy way; first be reconciled to thy brother, and then come and offer thy gift.

I've always wondered about how these verses read. In verse 22 we see two separate actions described and then in verse 23 and 24 it says that if we remember that our brother has something against us we need to stop right there and go get reconciled with our brother.

Well, the first action in verse 22 is that we are angry without cause and the second that we have condemned our brother as an apostate. Now it makes sense to me, and always has, that if we have done the second action to our brother we need to go make that right with him. He does have something against us.

Now to being angry without a cause. I've always figured this to be my problem not my brothers. He's not going to have something against me for it.

Now the issue with the Greek is this. The word translated as angry means "to provoke or enrage", or at least that's what I see Strong's as saying. The phrase "without cause" comes from a Greek word meaning "idly i.e. without reason".

With those meanings the verses really make sense to me. If I idly provoke my brother to rage my without a reason he really has something against me. I've seen this done many time. Someone will just decide they are going to mess with someone else until they blow up, get so mad they can't think straight.

My question is, why am I wrong and all the translators right?

[phkrause]

Not sure if this helps but this is how the CJB puts it:

22 But I tell you that anyone who nurses anger against his brother will be subject to judgment; that whoever calls his brother, ‘You good-for-nothing!’ will be brought before the Sanhedrin; that whoever says, ‘Fool!’ incurs the penalty of burning in the fire of Gei-Hinnom! 23 So if you are offering your gift at the Temple altar and you remember there that your brother has something against you, 24 leave your gift where it is by the altar, and go, make peace with your brother. Then come back and offer your gift.

[Gail]

You raise a good point, in that if the Greek is unclear (as indicated by Strongs as one word having several possible meanings) then there is a possibility that translators might also be wrong. Translators can be biased (ie- KJV and its translating of Sheol as "hell," not "grave".

This is where the Holy Spirit and a good, practical, all-round knowledge of the Bible comes in handy.

[Naomi]

I often think that we tend to focus on areas of translation and mss the big picture. You make a very good point about having a good all-around knowledge of the Bible and the Holy Spirit being of serious value. We will have eternity to understand the finer points of the Bible.

[joeb]

Thanks for all the replies so far. What my thought is as to why I'm wrong and the translators are most likely right is that since my only knowledge of Greek comes from Strong's is that there is most likely something I'm missing in the grammar of the Greek language that causes the translators to see this differently than I do. That's why the request for help from someone who knows a lot more about the Greek language than I do.