Administrators Gail Posted February 22, 2014 Administrators Posted February 22, 2014 I didn't realise it before but this verse is translated in a few ways. I have always understood the KJV rendering as a prophecy fulfilled in Christ. Let's have a look at it: Quote: 6 And one shall say unto him, What are these wounds in thine hands? Then he shall answer, Those with which I was wounded in the house of my friends. The Wycliffe and Geneva Bibles have it the same way, understandably. But here are some others. See what you make of them: Quote: ESV- And if one asks him, ‘What are these wounds on your back?’ he will say, ‘The wounds I received in the house of my friends.’ Quote: CJB- If someone asks him, ‘Then what are these gashes between your shoulders?’ he will answer, ‘I got hurt at my friends’ house.’ Quote: AMP- And one shall say to him, What are these wounds on your breast or between your hands? Then he will answer, Those with which I was wounded [when disciplined] in the house of my [loving] friends. Quote Isaiah 32:17 And the work of righteousness shall be peace; and the effect of righteousness quietness and assurance for ever.
Administrators Gail Posted February 22, 2014 Author Administrators Posted February 22, 2014 Young's Literal has the wounds being in the middle of the hands, while the Dead Sea Scrolls Bible is missing Zechariah 13 altogether. Quote Isaiah 32:17 And the work of righteousness shall be peace; and the effect of righteousness quietness and assurance for ever.
Moderators Gregory Matthews Posted February 22, 2014 Moderators Posted February 22, 2014 The following comments are taken from the SDA Bible Commentary. 1) A literal interpretation of the Hebrew is: "between thy hands." 2) Some commentators compare Zechariah 13:6 with 2 Kings 9:24: 3) The KJV translates 2 Kings 9:24 as "between his arms." However, this should be understood as "between his shoulders." 4) One cannot be positive that it is appropriate to compare Zechariah 13:6 with 2 Kings 9:24. 5) In the context of Zechariah 13, a converted false prophet (See verses 5 & 6) seems to be the subject. If so, it is reasonable to suggest that verse 6 does not apply to Christ. 6) However, scholars often give a secondary meaning to a Biblical passage. An example of this being properly done is Isaiah 7:14, where the primary application is to a female living in the time of Isaiah and a secondary application is to Christ. 7) It should be noted that Zechariah 13:7, seems to have Christ as the primary application. So, now the question becomes: Is the context of verse 6 tied to verse 5, or is it tied to verse 7 (see Matthew 26:31)? Just giving you something to think about. :) Quote Gregory
Administrators Gail Posted February 22, 2014 Author Administrators Posted February 22, 2014 Much appreciated! Thanks, Gregory! Quote Isaiah 32:17 And the work of righteousness shall be peace; and the effect of righteousness quietness and assurance for ever.
Moderators Jeannieb43 Posted February 23, 2014 Moderators Posted February 23, 2014 Very interesting! I hadn't studied that verse previously. Thank you. Quote Jeannie<br /><br /><br />...Change is inevitable; growth is optional....
Moderators Gregory Matthews Posted February 24, 2014 Moderators Posted February 24, 2014 Quote: The only blood Jesus ever shod, was in Golgotha, where and when and as He Himself, let fall onto the ground great drops of his LIFE'S BLOOD. The jesus of Roman Catholicism is covered in blood. But it is a lie of anti-Christ. Interesting to say the least. So a crown of thorns was placed upon his head--Mark 15:17 & John 19:1-5. This was before Golgotha. And you think that the crown of thorns did not draw blood. Pllate flogged Jesus--Matthews 27:26. You do not think that this drew blood. Well, you do not understand flogging as done by Rome. It drew blood and was before Golgotha. Quote Gregory
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