Is It Wrong To Translate "prote sabbatou" into "of the chief sabbath"?

[Samie]

In this forum, I have for many times pointed out this phrase "prote sabbatou" in Mark 16:9 as the only phrase that specifically says when Christ resurrected. This phrase is translated in the English Bibles into "first day of the week", a translation which I question, because in the Septuagint, all occurrences of "sabbatou" were all from the Hebrew "shabbath" and not for once from "shabua", Hebrew for "week".

If Mark really meant "week" instead of "sabbath" why did he not use the genitive "hebdomados"? For me, Mark's using "sabbatou" instead of "hebdomados" proves he really meant "sabbath".

Any thoughts, forum mates?

[BobRyan]

Is this a "all your bible translations are in error and the linguists knew nothing about Greek' thread?

Or is this a statement about all Bible translations being done by people who do not go to church on Sunday but they could not bring themselves to say 'week day 1 is the Lord's day" so some other way to fit that in was needed?

[Samie]

Thank you, BobRyan.

Back to the issue of this thread, why is it wrong to translate "prote sabbatou" into "of the chief sabbath"?

'prote' may be translated into "first" or "chief".

"sabbatou" was translated "sabbath" 10 times in the New Testament.

[Samie]

I am just curious whether it is known to many that all the "first day of the week" verses in the New Testament were all translated from a Greek phrase with "sabbaton" (spelled with an omega).

Mt 28:1 - mian sabbaton

Mk 16:2 - mia ton sabbaton

Mk 16:9 - prote sabbatou

Lk 24:1 - mia ton sabbaton

Jn 20:1 - mia ton sabbaton

Jn 20:19 - mia sabbaton

Ac 20:7 - mia ton sabbaton

1 Co 16:2 - mian sabbaton

"sabbaton" is sabbath, how come it became "week"?

[Samie]

Is this a "all your bible translations are in error and the linguists knew nothing about Greek' thread?

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