Administrators Gail Posted June 19, 2016 Administrators Posted June 19, 2016 In Mark 1:40-45 we read the story of Jesus healing a man with a skin disease. Verse 41 says that he was, "moved with compassion." But was he? Some manuscripts have it, "moved with anger." This fits the later statement that Jesus, "severely rebukes him," and, "throws him out." These phrases have been watered down in some versions, but I have a couple where the stronger language is retained. Matthew and Luke use the "compassion" view of Jesus' mood in their versions of the story. It is supposed that of the three, that Mark was the earliest gospel to be written and that Matthew and Luke had access to it when comprising their books. Who is correct? Mark has no problem with Jesus being angry (cf- 3:5 & 10:14), but the others seem to. Quote Isaiah 32:17 And the work of righteousness shall be peace; and the effect of righteousness quietness and assurance for ever.
Aliensanctuary Posted June 20, 2016 Posted June 20, 2016 If Jesus were angry, perhaps he knew that the man would ignore his warning and broadcast the event near and far, thus limiting his ability to reach others due to the huge crowds. Quote The Parable of the Lamb and the Pigpen https://www.createspace.com/3401451
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