Was the resurrection on the Sabbath?

[phkrause]

I guess first we need to know the correct year of the crucifixion. AD 31 is not correct, because Pesach was on march 31 and April 1, which is a Monday and a tuesday in the jewish calendar. If you go to AD 30, than Pesach is on the 10th and 11th of April, which is a wednesday and a thursday. You have to go back to AD 27 to get Pesach to be a wed and a thur again. So lets first determine which is the correct year.

pk

[Daniel1632]

Hi John,

The Didache proves how one Church and one ecclesiastical authority wanted to teach the counting of days of the week ca. 140 AD. I am familiar enough with the various cultic uses of calendars to say without hestiation that there are plenty of strange things to pick between. The only reason that the Didache was preserved and promoted was to undergird what the proto-Catholic Church wanted to continue to teach. They could have taught some other theory and the cults and corruptions would have provided it.

The point is that there is no unbiased general usage in Greek, Hebrew or Aramaic before the time of Rabbi Akkiba and his student Halaphta, contemporary with the gospels to support the rendering "first day of the week".

Tradition is like the Soviet Empire. Once the propaganda takes hold, it permeates everything. That's why 60 translations have "first day of the week". Only by going to unbaiased sources unaffected by the tradition can we fairly judge the case. But then again before AD 1500 there wasn't any translation that had first day of the week. I've even been reading up on Syriac quite a bit. At best it has "one to the Sabbath", but it is also capable of meaning "first of Sabbaths", and in no case does "sabbath" really mean week.

Once one gets tradition out of the way, and goes to the primary unbiased lingustic evidence, more possibilities come up, which can then be sorted out so that the chronology of Passion week is consistent and non-contradictory.

[John317]

Hi John,

The Didache proves how one Church and one ecclesiastical authority wanted to teach the counting of days of the week ca. 140 AD. I am familiar enough with the various cultic uses of calendars to say without hestiation that there are plenty of strange things to pick between. The only reason that the Didache was preserved and promoted was to undergird what the proto-Catholic Church wanted to continue to teach. They could have taught some other theory and the cults and corruptions would have provided it.

The Didache had wide circulation in the first and second century church and there is no reason to believe that Greek-speaking people of that day wrote the days of the week any other way than is found in the New Testament and in the Didache.

Do you have documentary evidence that the people of that part of the world and at that time in history wrote "Monday" or "second day of the week" in any other way besides deutera sabbatwn? Please let me know if you find any.

[John317]

Hi John,

The Didache proves how one Church and one ecclesiastical authority wanted to teach the counting of days of the week ca. 140 AD.

Even if we assume that you are right, there is no evidence that this authority was using language in a way that was in opposition to the typical way of writing or speaking of the days of the week.

It goes along with the way the New Testament uses that same word in Luke 18: 12. "twice a week."

In addition, there is this from the second century BC.----

There is excellent evidence in the Septuagint (LXX) at Ps. 48 (47 in LXX)--

It reads, "A Psalm of praise for the sons of Core on the second day of the week." It uses the word sabbatou for "week."

Ps. 94 in the LXX reads "fourth day of the week," (Gk. tetradi sabbatou).

[jasd]

QR frame:

"now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first Sabbath...."

It is my understanding that Sabbaton is singular; whereas, Sabbatwn is plural. Disabuse me should I err...

Bearing in mind that Septuagint was written in Koine Greek, the Greek Septuagint, when seeking to denote ‘week’ – utilized an existing and available term designating ‘week’. The Septuagint utilized

EBDOMADAS HMERWN – bearing the connotative ‘seven’, as in, “group of seven days”; or, simply, week. It is regrettable

that the two occurrences of sabbatwn in Matthew 28:1 – should have been ‘interpretively’ translated – in the one instance “In the end of the sabbath...” and in the other “...the first day of the week”. It is linguistically unsustainable – as translated.

Independently, we should have all arrived at the conclusion that, as translated, Matthew 28:1 is linguisticly dissonant.

Matt 28:1 In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn (#2020 epiphosko) toward the first [day] of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre. (compare: Luke 23:54 and note that -- epiphosko is used to denote the approaching sunset. “and the sabbath drew on.” – that is, the approaching sunset; and if I am not mistaken, these are the only two times epiphosko is found in NT Writ. They reinforce each other in providing us with almost the exact time Jesus Christ emerged from the tomb.)

Matt 28:1 oqe de sabbatwn th epifwskoush eiv mian sabbatwn hlyen Maria h Magdalhnh kai h allh Maria yewrhsai ton tafon

Mark 16:9 Now when [Jesus] was risen early the first [day] of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene, out of whom he had cast seven devils. (...try placing the comma after “risen” rather than “week” – to harmonize Mark 16:9 with Matthew 28:1 - and insert the correct singular Sabbath where your Bible reads 'week'.)

Mark 16:9 anastav de prwi prwth sabbatou efanh prwton Maria th Magdalhnh af hv ekbeblhkei epta daimonia

It is doubtless that expositors of Writ would very much appreciate a reference wherein secular writings occasioned a [legitimate] instance where sabbatwn is translated – week.

Re: Preparation (#3904 {paraskeue} – usually denoting Friday) day of The Passion Week.

Matt 27:62 Now the next day, that followed the day of the preparation, the chief priests and Pharisees came together unto Pilate,

Mark 15:42 And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath,

Lu 23:54 And that day was the preparation, and the sabbath drew on.

St John clarifies the “preparation ‘day’ ” referenced by the Synoptic Gospel authors – as it pertains the crucifixion...

Jn 19:14 And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!

And we know that Abib ('Nisan') 15 was a Sabbath, yes? a high Sabbath; that is, an annual Sabbath.

[Gerr]

I think you're in error, but let's assume for the moment that you are entirely correct. What doctrine about God or salvation does it change?

[TreeOfLife]

5. Re the Greek terms used in Matthew 28:1:

…

If you were to also recognize that the words “opse de sabbatwn” refers not to dawn but to dusk, your line of reasoning would come even closer to what I believe is a correct and sensible rendering of the events as they happened and as they should be understood based upon the best available manuscripts of the Holy Scriptures. For instance, such a reading would make the ladies appear at the tomb at the very end of the Sabbath hours. Yet, even such an interpretation is flawed…

Notice of a Correction and an Update…

Thank you all for your feedback and for your interest in these most important issues!

While I was studying these things with you all this last Sabbath I noted that item #8 under the link in the quote above was obsolete and in need of an update and in need of certain corrections in view of added rays of light that has come to me over the last few years. This was done, but somehow I failed to upload my corrected file until just a few minutes ago.

Please forgive me for my delay!

May the peace of our Creator rest over each of our homes and families as our One and only God continues to lead each of us step by step into an ever more living comprehension of the Holy Writ,

Tree of Life©

[TreeOfLife]

I think you're in error, but let's assume for the moment that you are entirely correct. What doctrine about God or salvation does it change?

[Gerr]

I have been mulling it over, if Christ was resurrected on Sabbath, would it change my belief about the Second Coming? The Sabbath? The non-immortality of man? The destruction of the wicked? How a sinner is saved? Would it make me a better person?

Right now I can't think of anything that would change if it were proved that Christ indeed rose on Sabbath. But I don't think there has been a mistranslation. In Ac 20:7, Luke uses heis ho sabbaton exactly as the gospels use it. If that was a 7th day Sabbath, that would have meant they met on Friday night per the "evening to evening" reckoning of day. And Luke says, Paul prolonged his speech until midnight "intending to depart on the next day." Paul intending to take a long journey on Sabbath? Paul, whose custom it was to go to the synagogue on Sabbath? That's unthinkable for a Pharisee like Paul!

[Daniel1632]

Hi Apl,

If you look at the top part of the chart you will see that the three days and three nights begin with the crucifixion about 3 p.m. It is counting part of a day for the first day, and part of a night for the third night (albeit most of a night). The pshat (literal) is that he was put in the grave maybe only an hour or two before sunset, which is explained by inclusive counting.

"Matthew 12:40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale’s belly; so shall the Son of man be three days and three nights in the heart of the earth" (DLT: torahtimes.org).

three days: Using inclusive counting, the first day is the remaining part of the day after Yeshua was put in the grave. The second day is Thursday. The third day is Friday. This is a פשט (literal) level of interpretation. Inclusive counting was the standard biblical method of enumerating days.

three nights: Wednesday Night, Thursday Night, and Friday Night. Whenever day and night are coordinated like this the days and nights are counted separately. Yeshua spend most of the third night in the grave. Again, it is simply enumerated as the "third night" by the inclusive counting method.

comment: The resurrection was just before dawn at the end of the third night, i.e. Friday night, which was also the Sabbath, since the Sabbath began at sunset on Friday. Also, the order, where the days are mentioned first implies that the day leads the counting and the night ends the counting. It does not say *three nights and three days*. It has to be this way also to agree with the third day as counted for a Temple offering.

Comment: By means of a דרש, we equate "heart of the earth" with Yeshua's suffering in Jerusalem, "I am YHWH in the midst of the earth" (Exodus 8:22). Now the words "heart" לבב and "the earth" הארץ are taken from Jonah 2:3 [4] and 2:6 [7], the "heart" from "heart of the seas" and the "earth" from "the earth with her bars". In Jonah 2:3, the prophet is referring to His time of trouble before he was swallowed by the whale, and before he sank between the roots of the mountains on the sea bottom. We may justly think then that Yeshua is indicating his the whole period of his suffering by combining "heart" from vs. 3 with "three days and three nights". It is quite clear from the gospel accounts that Yeshua was detained in the morning and quite possibly first struck in the face exactly at dawn on Wednesday, Nisan 14, AD 34. (DLC: torahtimes.org)

[Daniel1632]

I have been mulling it over, if Christ was resurrected on Sabbath, would it change my belief about the Second Coming? The Sabbath? The non-immortality of man? The destruction of the wicked? How a sinner is saved? Would it make me a better person?

Right now I can't think of anything that would change if it were proved that Christ indeed rose on Sabbath. But I don't think there has been a mistranslation. In Ac 20:7, Luke uses heis ho sabbaton exactly as the gospels use it. If that was a 7th day Sabbath, that would have meant they met on Friday night per the "evening to evening" reckoning of day. And Luke says, Paul prolonged his speech until midnight "intending to depart on the next day." Paul intending to take a long journey on Sabbath? Paul, whose custom it was to go to the synagogue on Sabbath? That's unthinkable for a Pharisee like Paul!

"And upon the first of the Sabbaths, when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight" (Acts 20:7, DLT, torahtimes.org)

first...Sabbath: this might be one of the Sabbaths, a looser translation specifying one of the seven Sabbaths after Passover. The Passover is mentioned in the preceding verse. However, there is a text critical problem with vs. 6. Fixing that problem would put this "first of the Sabbaths" exactly after the annual Passover Sabbath in AD 57. That would make this meeting an annual remembrance of Yeshua's resurrection on the first Sabbath."

comment: it has often been interpreted that the meeting began after sunset, however, the case is that it began on the "first of the Sabbaths" during the day, i.e. the anniversary of the resurrection during the day portion of the Sabbath. They ate the main meal that day before sunset, but Paul continued to teach until midnight, ready to leave in the morning. This allows about six hours of sleep for Paul.

[Daniel1632]

(compare: Luke 23:54 and note that -- epiphosko is used to denote the approaching sunset. “and the sabbath drew on.” – that is, the approaching sunset; and if I am not mistaken, these are the only two times epiphosko is found in NT Writ. They reinforce each other in providing us with almost the exact time Jesus Christ emerged from the tomb.)

I like your post jsd. Here is my comment on Luke 23:54:

Please link to see fonts correctly.

http://www.torahtimes.org/translation/luk2354.html

The Annual Sabbath in Luke

"54 And it was the day in front of a Sabbath." (DLT: torahtimes.org, Luke 23:54, Codex Bezae).

Comment: Codex Bezae (Catabrigiensis) is "one of the five most important Greek New testament MSS" (newadvent.org). "St. Luke's Gospel alone, of the books contained, is preserved complete" (ibid); "there is no indication that it was, like the other great uncial manuscripts, ever joined to the text of the Old Testament" (ibid) [significance: Eusebius under Constantine has no control over it]; "the text of D bears a remarkable resemblance to the text quoted by St. Irenæus [ca. 140-202 AD], even, says Nestle, in the matter of clerical mistakes, so that it is possibly derived from his very copy"; "Following Scrivener, scholars universally dated it from the beginning of the sixth century [500], but there is a tendency now to place it a hundred years earlier [400]." (ibid). "The type of text found in D is very ancient, yet it has survived in this one Greek manuscript alone, though it is found also in the Old Latin, the Old Syriac, and the Old Armenian versions. It is the so-called Western Text, or one type of the Western Text. All the Fathers before the end of the third century used a similar text and it can be traced back to sub-Apostolic times." (ibid).

Comment: The NA-27th Text reads, και ημερα ην παρασκευης και σαββατον επεφωσκεν. Codex Bezae reads ην δε η ημερα προ σαββατου. The reason we should go with the reading of D is that the word επεφωσκεν means dawning, and does not make any sense at this point in the narrative. The Sabbath does not begin with "dawning"; The word is composed of επι (on, upon) and φωσκω (light). BDAG, "grow towards or become daylight, sine forth, dawn, break, perh. draw on " (pg. 386, 3rd edition). The reason for "perhaps" is that BDAG is only forced to adopt "draw on" to explain one text, i.e. Luke 23:54. One text is hardly evidence that a word has a linguistic meaning totally divorced from its etymology. One text is only an enigmatic evidence of a mistake or misuse. The word clearly means "dawning" in Matthew 28:1. The later and obviously dependent Gospel of Peter, επεφωσκοντος του σαββατου cannot be considered lexical evidence since the use obviously comes from just one source, namely the Byzantine Luke 23:54.

Comment: The Western Codex Bezae has a consistent chronological record of turning out to be correct over and against the official Byzantine Text. For example in Mark 15:25, D omits the problematic "third hour" in agreement with the old itala. It also has Matthew 16:21=Luke 9:22 in correct agreement with Mark 8:31=μετα τρεις ημερας. Likewise Mark 9:31 and 10:34 for their respective parallel passages. For a full rundown see torahtimes.org/book/page50.pdf. Also the words κατα την εντολη are omitted from Luke 23:56. (DLC: torahtimes.org)

Comment: The day in question was the annual Sabbath, Nisan 15, which fell on Thursday, March 25, AD 34. It was from the sunset on Wednesday, March 24 to sunset on Thursday, March 25 Julian Period (J.P.). Codex Bezae does not call the day before it the preparation day. Even so, the day before this Sabbath was the preparation of the Passover (John 19:14; 31).

[Daniel1632]

Daniel's Literal Translation

and Commentary

 

What means the Preparation Day?

 

"⁴²

And now having become later, because it was a preparation, which is before a

Sabbath, ⁴³ Joseph of Arimathaea, a respected member of the Council,

who was also himself looking for the kingdom of God, took courage and went to

Pilate and asked for the body of Yeshua." (DLT: torahtimes.org, Mark 15:42,

parts of vs. 43 from ESV)  

Comment: Codex Bezae reads

πριν σαββατον

and

other important MSS read

προς σαββατον

, and the 27th edition of Aland

reads

προςαββατον

.   Jewish Scholar Solomon Zeitlin pointed

in

Studies in the Early History of Judaism,

(New York: KTAV, 1973,

vol. 1, pg. 210) that "Some MSS omit the words

ο εστιν προσαββατον

.   

There are no papyri covering this section of Mark.  The word

σαββατον is to be explained as a transliteration of the Hebrew

שבתון

,

which means "sabbatism" and was used for feast days as well as the weekly

sabbath.  However, in Leviticus 23:11, 15, the annual Passover feast

day is also called "the Sabbath",

השבת

.  Zeitlin also says, "The

word 

παρασκευη

is not a Jewish technical term at all (pg. 268). 

Rather, the word 

παρασκευη

, which has in Greek the meaning of

preparation, became a pagan  technical term for the Eve of Sabbath,

as

well as for the Eve of other holidays (pg. 269), (

Journal of Biblical

Literature, Vol. 51-52, 1932-33, pp. 263-271, my underlines)" (The

Sabbath Resurrection, 1993, Dan Gregg).  "Torrey's theory (JBL 50

[1931], 227-41) that Passover should be understood as the festival period of

seven days and that John is speaking of Friday within Passover week has been

refuted by S. Zeitlin, JBL (1932), 263-71 (Brown, Raymod E.

The Anchor

Bible: The Gospel According to John. Garden City, NY: Doubleday & Co.,

Inc., 1970, John 19:14, pg. 882)." Bauer, Arndt and Gingrich go on to expand

on the traditional definition, but they do note "Against Torrey, SZeitlin,

JBL 51, '32, 263-71."

         

Zeitlin replies in another place:

        The words in verse Mark

15.42, "And when even was now come, because it was the preparation, that

is, the day before the Sabbath" do not prove at all that the word

parasque was used to designate Friday only, but not the eve of

holidays.  We clearly see from John 19.14, "and it was the

parasque

of the Passover" that the word

parasque

may refer also to the eve

of the holidays. (

The Jewish Quarterly Review

, Vol. XLII, 1952.)

F.F. Bruce states:

        The first clear occurrence of Gk. 

παρασκευη

in the sense of "Friday" is in the

Martyrdom of Polycarp

7.1 A.D.

156 (pg. 381, note 12,

The Gospel of John

).

"Dalman has, we believe correctly, pointed out:

Neither could the author (of Jn. 19:14) have meant ... by the expression

the, 'Eve of the Passover' anything other than the day which the Jews call

in Hebrew, 'ereb pesah', and in Aramaic 'arubat pisha',

i.e. the day which preceeded the Festival; never the Friday in the festive

week, as Zahn suggests." (Jesus-Jeshua, pg. 88.) (Journal of

Biblical Literature, pg. 270, Zeitlin, "The Date of the Crucifixion",

1932-33).

 

composed:

5/10/09.

Daniel's Literal Translation and Commentary:

(http://www.torahtimes.org/translation/mar1542.html)

[Daniel1632]

Well I'm sort of figuring out how to post. This forum software has some idiosyncrasies that have to be learned.

[TreeOfLife]

I have been mulling it over, if Christ was resurrected on Sabbath, would it change my belief about the Second Coming? The Sabbath? The non-immortality of man? The destruction of the wicked? How a sinner is saved? Would it make me a better person?

Right now I can't think of anything that would change if it were proved that Christ indeed rose on Sabbath. But I don't think there has been a mistranslation…

[TreeOfLife]

Originally Posted By: Daniel1632

Didache? (ca. 150 A.D.) --- only reflects what they believed. There were plenty of cults and sects by then. Ecclesiastical Greek is just circular reasoning. Please cite primary sources with no proto-catholic bias.

Translations prove nothing since they don't say what the Greek says.

Tradition and what those people believed has nothing to do with it.

The point is that the Didache proves that that is how the people in the first and second centuries referred to the days of the week. That is how they used the word sabbatwn. That is why virtually ALL the translations of the NT refer to the "first day of the week."

Lesson: pay attention to 60 translations. When they agree, there is a good reason for the agreement.

[TreeOfLife]

In reference also to the quotes within my last prior post above:

Re the Names for the Days of the Week

as Used Very Extensively Within the Greek NT MSS

Dear John 3:17,

I do have a very direct, affirmative, and, to me, most powerful answer to this question of yours:

Quote:

Do you have documentary evidence that the people of that part of the world and at that time in history wrote "Monday" or "second day of the week" in any other way besides deutera sabbatwn? Please let me know if you find any.

For your answer from me, please consider carefully the details of the following studies (not omitting the enclosed links within the text provided under the below links!

1. The first four items under this link;

2. This article of mine in its entirety excepting only the obsoleted boxed in text.

If after a really careful study you do not perceive what I am perceiving, that is, the very extensive specific references to all the days of the week within the New Testament (references that mostly are not coming through in any translation to modern languages excepting only the Tree of Life Time version© [TLT©,]) I don’t know what I am doing wrong, whether in my own perception or in my ability to effectively share the light I am seeing.

Shalom,

Tree of Life©

P.S. After reflecting some upon my own last paragraph above I come to realize the importance of honest prayers prior to one’s own every study in the pursuit of truth. If a reader of one’s posts are in effect praying for and desiring only such as may confirm his or her own presumptions and ideas, as mostly derived from tradition and prior schooling within the pyramid like hierarchies of men, such a reader is not likely to glean very much of subjective value from a source reflecting nothing but truth that is yet to be discovered by such hierarchical schools of thought. If, on the other hand, a reader is honestly praying for more light over any particular subject matter while being willing and desiring to receive especially such as points out such a reader’s prior misconceptions and errors, then the opposite will be true, and such a reader is likely to find one treasure after another with no seeming end, when pursuing a previously poorly understood writ of correctly reflected and recorded observations and perceptions of the reality that is indeed the very creation of the One that made heaven, and earth, and the sea, and the fountains of waters…

I believe this applies to each and all, or most of us, when studying the Word of God and other ancient sources.

[TreeOfLife]

In reference also to the quotes within my prior post above:

mia twv sabbatwv= first day of the week

See Didache, paragraph #8. (Dated between 50 and 150 A.D.)

This source helps to prove beyond any doubt that

deutera sabbatwn= Monday, the second day of the week.

J.B. Lightfoot's translation: 8:1 And let not your fastings be with the hypocrites, for they fast on the second and the fifth day of the week;

8:2 but do ye keep your fast on the fourth and on the preparation (the sixth) day.

Kirsopp Lake's Translation:1 Let not your fasts be with the hypocrites, for they fast on Mondays and Thursdays, but do you fast on Wednesdays and Fridays.

They fast - second sabbath and

nhsteusousi gar deutera sabbatwn kai

fifth; you (rather) fast (ye) [on the] fourth and preparation [day before sabbath].

pempth, umeiv de nhsteusate tetrada kai paraskeuhn.

It will be seen that "second sabbath" [deutera sabbatwn] means the second day of the week, or Monday. The fifth day of the week is Thursday. The fourth day of the week is of course Wednesday, and "preparation" is Friday, the preparation day, since that is the day on which we prepare for the Sabbath of the Lord our God.

One reason virtually all translations read "first day of the week" is that this is the correct reading.

Out of 67 translations, only 3 read "sabbaths" in place of "week" at John 20: 1, and two of those were translated by Jay P. Green. His King James II translation reads, "first day of the week" at Matt. 28: 1 and Acts 20: 7, yet the same words at John 10: 1 have been translated as "the first of the sabbaths." This alone shows that Green is unreliable when it comes to translating this phrase.

[Gerr]

Is the correct knowledge of when Jesus actually died and rose a salvation issue?

[John317]

QR frame:

Bearing in mind that Septuagint was written in Koine Greek, the Greek Septuagint, when seeking to denote ‘week’ – utilized an existing and available term designating ‘week’. The Septuagint utilized

EBDOMADAS HMERWN – bearing the connotative ‘seven’, as in, “group of seven days”; or, simply, week. It is regrettable

that the two occurrences of sabbatwn in Matthew 28:1 – should have been ‘interpretively’ translated – in the one instance “In the end of the sabbath...” and in the other “...the first day of the week”. It is linguistically unsustainable – as translated.

And you have studied Koine Greek how many years and have translated how many Greek texts?

The greatest and foremost translator of Greek texts, Richmond Lattimore, who translated most of the Greek Classics and taught Greek translation for many years a top universities, translated Matt. 28: 1 as " in the end of the sabbath.... the first day of the week."

I myself have been studying the Greek language since I took classes in it at Loma Linda University over 30 years ago.

I've never known anyone to be able to give a good reason for translating it any other way than the way virtually all NT Greek scholars translate it. When you count all the Greek Lexicons, to say nothing of all the thousands of Greek scholars and translators who worked on over 100 different English translations, you are talking about several thousand years of life experience with the Greek text. Almost every single one of them pointing in a single direction: "week."

Those are translators who have no bone to pick. Richmond Lattimore, for instance, was completely objective and had no reason to prefer "week" over "sabbaths." All he cared about was getting it right.

I'd say the evidence is overwhelming, but you can lead a horse to water, as the saying is. OH well, some just WILL not drink however good the water is.

[TreeOfLife]

Is the correct knowledge of when Jesus actually died and rose a salvation issue?

[TreeOfLife]

I guess first we need to know the correct year of the crucifixion. AD 31 is not correct, because Pesach was on march 31 and April 1, which is a Monday and a tuesday in the jewish calendar. If you go to AD 30, than Pesach is on the 10th and 11th of April, which is a wednesday and a thursday. You have to go back to AD 27 to get Pesach to be a wed and a thur again. So lets first determine which is the correct year.

pk

“First We Need to Know the Correct Year of the Crucifixion…”

Dear P Krause,

Thank you for your feedback!

I feels good for me to see someone realizing the truth about an issue that is important to me.

I encourage you to pursue the answer to your above quoted objective. The more of such a pursuit that is initiated by yourself the more valuable and meaningful it will become for you. Yet, there is never a need for each and every one to reinvent the same wheel. There is always room for improvements and for new inventions. Utilizing the achievements attained by our fathers we may all stand upon the shoulders of giants while we also grow.

Once you find the answer to your most immediate question there will no doubt be other more challenging, more interesting, more important questions to ask and answers to find.

If you find value in reviewing the discoveries God has allowed me to make over the years, you will no doubt grow by leaps and bounds beyond that which I have as yet come to realize. This link is sort of a record of my own pursuit of the same objective that you are posing above and I believe you may be wise to partake of that which I have there recorded. Yet, I believe it may be of great importance for you to pursue for yourself your own answers to the questions posed at this link if you are to really make these insights your own and not merely some thoughts and consideration of another, me.

Here is a link to a diagram I once made comparing certain characteristics of the years I was considering for that important event in the life of our Savior. You may compare the years in that diagram with the list at this link.

May Yeshua, each our Savior and Guide along our narrow path towards the Kingdom of our great God, remain at your side at all times,

Shalom,

Tree of Life©

[John317]

Dear John 3:17,

I wasn’t aware of the Didache before you brought it up in this thread. Thank you for alerting me to this resource! Could it possibly be a writing that I have been looking for for some years without finding it?

Reading through the sixteen chapters of Lightfoot’s translation of the Didache it strikes me that it has at least two or three of the four specific ear marks of being the exact text issued by the apostles in Jerusalem in 39 or 40 CE [per my revised 1st century chronology] at the request of the ones in Antioch referenced in Acts 15:2 (cf. Acts 14:26-15:2.) Before you alerted me to the Didache I had noted that the apostles in Jerusalem named in Acts 15 are exactly the ones who, besides Paul, are the authors of all the epistles of the New Testament. Yet, in those NT epistles of James, Peter, John, and Jude there are no direct statements conforming to all of the specifications of Acts 15:20, 23-29.

First of all, the short and the long titles of the Didache do give support to the Didache being in fact at the very heart of the letters referenced in Acts 15:23, the other letters being in fact the more personal epistles of James, Peter, John and Jude. Compare especially the four things referenced in Acts 15:20, 29 with the things referenced in Didache 2:2; 3:4-7; 5:2; 6:5-6 [2:2; 3:3-4; 5:1; 6:3 in Hoole’s translation and in the Swedish translation]. Specifically:

1. “Abstain[ing] from pollutions of idols…:” Didache 3:6-7; 5:2; 6:5-6 [3:4; 5:1; and 6:3 in Hoole’s an in the Swedish translations;]

2. “Abstain[ing]… from fornication…:” Didache 2:2; 3:4-5; 5:2 [2:2; 3:3; and 5:1 in Hoole’s an in the Swedish translations;]

3. “Abstain[ing]… from things strangled…:” Didache 2:2(?) [Could the original language translated “thou shalt not murder a child by abortion nor kill them when born” possibly originate from the same as that which is the source of the words “things strangled?;”] and

4. “Abstain[ing]… from blood:” (?)

Secondly, the choice of words in the Didache reminds me of John’s attitude as expressed in 1 John 2:1: “My little children…”

Thirdly, the teachings as expressed throughout the Didache seems well suited for being a major basis from which Paul in his many epistles could have been gathering food for thought and which he could well have used as the basis for his teachings.

Fourthly, there are concepts that reminds me of the NT epistles of Peter.

Well, these are some of my initial reflections upon being first exposed to the Didache. The items specified under #3 and #4 above are still calling for more than is thus far provided by the Didache and said NT epistles of the apostles though…

Shalom,

Tree of Life©

Shalom, Tree of Life--

Thank you for this reply. I find what you say here about the Didache really interesting. I plan on looking further into what you've pointed out.

I have read that part of it is possibly from the first century but that some parts of it are obviously corrupt.

Have you looked into paragraph #14, which is the section that supposedly refers to or support worship on Sunday? Do you see any evidence that the text has been altered?

[TreeOfLife]

Have you looked into paragraph #14, which is the section that supposedly refers to or support worship on Sunday? Do you see any evidence that the text has been altered?

[TreeOfLife]

QR frame:

"now after the Sabbath, toward the dawn of the first Sabbath...."

It is my understanding that Sabbaton is singular; whereas, Sabbatwn is plural. Disabuse me should I err...

Bearing in mind that Septuagint was written in Koine Greek, the Greek Septuagint, when seeking to denote ‘week’ – utilized an existing and available term designating ‘week’. The Septuagint utilized

EBDOMADAS HMERWN – bearing the connotative ‘seven’, as in, “group of seven days”; or, simply, week. It is regrettable

that the two occurrences of sabbatwn in Matthew 28:1 – should have been ‘interpretively’ translated – in the one instance “In the end of the sabbath...” and in the other “...the first day of the week”. It is linguistically unsustainable – as translated.

Independently, we should have all arrived at the conclusion that, as translated, Matthew 28:1 is linguisticly dissonant.

Matt 28:1 In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn (#2020 epiphosko) toward the first [day] of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre. (compare: Luke 23:54 and note that -- epiphosko is used to denote the approaching sunset. “and the sabbath drew on.” – that is, the approaching sunset; and if I am not mistaken, these are the only two times epiphosko is found in NT Writ. They reinforce each other in providing us with almost the exact time Jesus Christ emerged from the tomb.)

Matt 28:1 oqe de sabbatwn th epifwskoush eiv mian sabbatwn hlyen Maria h Magdalhnh kai h allh Maria yewrhsai ton tafon

Mark 16:9 Now when [Jesus] was risen early the first [day] of the week, he appeared first to Mary Magdalene, out of whom he had cast seven devils. (...try placing the comma after “risen” rather than “week” – to harmonize Mark 16:9 with Matthew 28:1 - and insert the correct singular Sabbath where your Bible reads 'week'.)

Mark 16:9 anastav de prwi prwth sabbatou efanh prwton Maria th Magdalhnh af hv ekbeblhkei epta daimonia

It is doubtless that expositors of Writ would very much appreciate a reference wherein secular writings occasioned a [legitimate] instance where sabbatwn is translated – week.

Re: Preparation (#3904 {paraskeue} – usually denoting Friday) day of The Passion Week.

Matt 27:62 Now the next day, that followed the day of the preparation, the chief priests and Pharisees came together unto Pilate,

Mark 15:42 And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath,

Lu 23:54 And that day was the preparation, and the sabbath drew on.

St John clarifies the “preparation ‘day’ ” referenced by the Synoptic Gospel authors – as it pertains the crucifixion...

Jn 19:14 And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!

And we know that Abib ('Nisan') 15 was a Sabbath, yes? a high Sabbath; that is, an annual Sabbath.

Thanks for Confirming and Adding Strength…

Thank you, jasd!

I find every observation of yours within your post in harmony with my understanding of the real events…

Thanks for alerting me to the fact that there are only two instances of G2020, “epiphosko,” in the New Testament, and also for the Septuagint term “EBDOMADAS HMERWN – bearing the connotative ‘seven’, as in, “group of seven days”; or, simply, week.” Obviously that applies to any “group of seven days,” e.g. the seven days of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, the seven days of the Feast of Tabernacles, and even to the seven extra annual “Sabbaths” proclaimed by the Lord in Leviticus 23, only one of which is always concurrent with the regular weekly 7th Day, i.e. the Feast of Weeks, the Day of Pentecost. - Not only to that which is commonly thought of as “a week.”

I accept your observations as confirmatory of my position as well as also adding strength to the same.

Thanks again!

Shalom,

Tree of Life©