Samie Posted November 30, 2013 Posted November 30, 2013 NEVER was it ever refuted that Passover is a full moon feast, and we, SDA's, believe this and that the Crucifixion year was 31 AD. Since Christ Himself said He came, NOT to destroy, but to fulfill the Law (which includes Passover Law), He therefore, ate Passover on a full moon: and He through Whom God made the world can NEVER lose tract when the moon is full. And Sister White attested to this full moon fact. So, why don't we just look up when full moon occurred after the spring equinox and settle the issue once and for all? Simple and biblically correct. That's what I did and found that each piece of the puzzle fell in its rightful place. In Christ, Samie Quote
Gibs Posted November 30, 2013 Posted November 30, 2013 The 70'th week was 27AD through 33AD and 30AD was the mid yr. of that wk. of yrs. 457BC though 1BC is 457 yrs. The counting is inclusive,457BC being counted in. Then 1AD through 33AD is the end of the 70'th wk.! 33+457 = 490 yrs. or 70 wks. of yrs. Now, there truly was a full moon the true Passover date, but the Jews who crucified Jesus began Nissan two days late as they started it by sighting the first sliver and it couldn't be seen for the first two days, but was there. Depending on where the new moon is rising can it be seen of the very first sliver Their full moon was waning for two days is a fact, and their Passover fell on the Sabbath and so is chronicled in scripture as a "high day". Joh 19:31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day WAS AN HIGH DAY,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away. Those Jews then who crucified Jesus were preparing not only for Passover and also the Holy Seventh day Sabbath. 1Jo 4:5 They are of the world: therefore speak they of the world, and the world heareth them. 1Jo 4:6 We are of God: he that knoweth God heareth us; he that is not of God heareth not us. Hereby know we the spirit of truth, and the spirit of error. 1Jo 4:4 ¶ Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world. Quote A Freeman In Jesus Christ
ClubV12 Posted November 30, 2013 Posted November 30, 2013 Looks like, among other false doctrine, Samie also believes the feasts are binding today. Whew, these winds of doctrine just never stop blowing. Quote
Samie Posted November 30, 2013 Author Posted November 30, 2013 ...Now, there truly was a full moon the true Passover date, but the Jews who crucified Jesus began Nissan two days late as they started it by sighting the first sliver and it couldn't be seen for the first two days, but was there. Depending on where the new moon is rising can it be seen of the very first sliver Their full moon was waning for two days is a fact, and their Passover fell on the Sabbath and so is chronicled in scripture as a "high day". Joh 19:31 The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day WAS AN HIGH DAY,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away. Those Jews then who crucified Jesus were preparing not only for Passover and also the Holy Seventh day Sabbath. ... Do you believe Jesus ate Passover on a non-full moon night, and so violated the Law He said He came to fulfill? Quote
Windsor Posted November 30, 2013 Posted November 30, 2013 The astronomical new moon and full moon are not necessarily the new moon and full moon as perceived by the naked eye. From the US Naval Observatory: “Although Full Moon occurs each month at a specific date and time, the Moon's disk may appear to be full for several nights in a row if it is clear. This is because the percentage of the Moon's disk that appears illuminated changes very slowly around the time of Full Moon. The Moon may appear 100% illuminated only on the night closest to the time of exact Full Moon, but on the night before and night after will appear 97-99% illuminated; most people would not notice the difference. Even two days from Full Moon the Moon's disk is 93-97% illuminated.” Quote Remember Adventists Online?
ClubV12 Posted November 30, 2013 Posted November 30, 2013 Since we know the end date exactly, October 22, 1844, one should be able to count backwards from that. Quote
Gibs Posted November 30, 2013 Posted November 30, 2013 Yes Club, 33AD being the last year of the 70'th week, then 34AD, a Jubilee, through 1844 is the 1810 yrs. 2300 - 490 = 1810 yrs. 1810 + 34 = 1844, or 1844 - 34 = 1810 so it checks out correct and the last Jubilee yr. was 1995. 457BC was a Jubilee, 34AD was a Jubilee, Yr. 1BC, Adams 1'st yr. on earth was a Jubilee and there Have been 122 Jubilees with the yr.1994, 1995 then a Jubilee. Our count is starting with Jubilee yr. one of Adam and our count always begins with a Jubilee yr. which is also yr. one of the next cycle of 49, 7x7. 122 Jubilees is 49x122 and equals, 5,978yrs. Will God allow time to go on through another Jubilee? That of course would be 1995 + 49 and = our year 2044. That would be, 6,027 yrs. if it does. http://www.itsaboutthattime.net/Calendar_Synopsis.htm if any want to peruse it. You cannot move it ahead or back a yr., nor can you move it ahead or back a Jubilee cycle. This is one of God's established time clocks, from all eternity past into all eternity future. Just as the solar Sabbath, it is forever recurring cycles. 1Jo 4:4 ¶ Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world Quote A Freeman In Jesus Christ
Gibs Posted November 30, 2013 Posted November 30, 2013 I want here to make it clear where most make a mistake in working with the Jubilee Calendar. It is this, The cycles are a unit of 7x7 recurring continually and so then too are the cycles of 49 are continually recurring.. We always start a new cycle of 49 on the 1'st yr. of that next recurring cycle which is also always a Jubilee yr, a fiftieth yr. from the last one. 1'st year of each 49 yr. cycle is also a fiftieth yr. a Jubilee yr. and yr. 1 + 6 more yrs. + 7 + 7 + 7 + 7+ 7 + 7, then recurring again, a Jubilee and yr. 1 + 6 more +7+7+7+7+7+7, and goes on recurring eternally. 10 Jubilees therefore are not 500 yrs. but are 490 yrs. because we began the count with 1'st yr. of the 49 cycle and with 50, it being yr. 1 and also yr. 50, same with the next 49 cycle, yr. 1 is also a fiftieth and so in 490 yrs. there is 10 Jubilees. This is what we had with the 70 wks. allotted to the Jews, BC 457 a Jubilee and also the first yr. of a new recurring cycle of 49 and so our count begins with BC 457 through BC 1, = 457 yrs. + AD 1 through AD 33 we have the 70 wks., 490 yrs. Then the next recurring 49 cycle begins and is also the fiftieth yr. AD 34. I hope now more will understand the math of the Jubilee calendar. All yr. for a day, "time" prophecy is given on this a yr. for a day calendar. 1Jo 4:4 ¶ Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world. Quote A Freeman In Jesus Christ
Green Cochoa Posted December 1, 2013 Posted December 1, 2013 I'm not sure I catch the reason for this discussion. Are we trying to prove or to disprove the facts presented in The Great Controversy? The angel had been sent to Daniel for the express purpose of explaining to him the point which he had failed to understand in the vision of the eighth chapter, the statement relative to time--"unto two thousand and three hundred days; then shall the sanctuary be cleansed." After bidding Daniel "understand the matter, and consider the vision," the very first words of the angel are: "Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy Holy City." The word here translated "determined" literally signifies "cut off." Seventy weeks, representing 490 years, are declared by the angel to be cut off, as specially pertaining to the Jews. But from what were they cut off? As the 2300 days was the only period of time mentioned in chapter 8, it must be the period from which the seventy weeks were cut off; the seventy weeks must therefore be a part of the 2300 days, and the two periods must begin together. The seventy weeks were declared by the angel to date from the going forth of the commandment to restore and build Jerusalem. If the date of this commandment could be found, then the starting point for the great period of the 2300 days would be ascertained. {GC 326.2} In the seventh chapter of Ezra the decree is found. Verses 12-26. In its completest form it was issued by Artaxerxes, king of Persia, 457 B.C. But in Ezra 6:14 the house of the Lord at Jerusalem is said to have been built "according to the commandment ["decree," margin] of Cyrus, and Darius, and Artaxerxes king of Persia." These three kings, in originating, reaffirming, and completing the decree, brought it to the perfection required by the prophecy to mark the beginning of the 2300 years. Taking 457 B.C., the time when the decree was completed, as the date of the commandment, every specification of the prophecy concerning the seventy weeks was seen to have been fulfilled. {GC 326.3} "From the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks"--namely, sixty-nine weeks, or 483 years. The decree of Artaxerxes went into effect in the autumn of 457 B.C. From this date, 483 years extend to the autumn of A.D. 27. (See Appendix.) At that time this prophecy was fulfilled. The word "Messiah" signifies "the Anointed One." In the autumn of A.D. 27 Christ was baptized by John and received the anointing of the Spirit. The apostle Peter testifies that "God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power." Acts 10:38. And the Saviour Himself declared: "The Spirit of the Lord is upon Me, because He hath anointed Me to preach the gospel to the poor." Luke 4:18. After His baptism He went into Galilee, "preaching the gospel of the kingdom of God, and saying, The time is fulfilled." Mark 1:14, 15. {GC 327.1} "And He shall confirm the covenant with many for one week." The "week" here brought to view is the last one of the seventy; it is the last seven years of the period allotted especially to the Jews. During this time, extending from A.D. 27 to A.D. 34, Christ, at first in person and afterward by His disciples, extended the gospel invitation especially to the Jews. As the apostles went forth with the good tidings of the kingdom, the Saviour's direction was: "Go not into the way of the Gentiles, and into any city of the Samaritans enter ye not: but go rather to the lost sheep of the house of Israel." Matthew 10:5, 6. {GC 327.2} "In the midst of the week He shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease." In A.D. 31, three and a half years after His baptism, our Lord was crucified. With the great sacrifice offered upon Calvary, ended that system of offerings which for four thousand years had pointed forward to the Lamb of God. Type had met antitype, and all the sacrifices and oblations of the ceremonial system were there to cease. {GC 327.3} The seventy weeks, or 490 years, especially allotted to the Jews, ended, as we have seen, in A.D. 34. At that time, through the action of the Jewish Sanhedrin, the nation sealed its rejection of the gospel by the martyrdom of Stephen and the persecution of the followers of Christ. Then the message of salvation, no longer restricted to the chosen people, was given to the world. The disciples, forced by persecution to flee from Jerusalem, "went everywhere preaching the word." "Philip went down to the city of Samaria, and preached Christ unto them." Peter, divinely guided, opened the gospel to the centurion of Caesarea, the God-fearing Cornelius; and the ardent Paul, won to the faith of Christ, was commissioned to carry the glad tidings "far hence unto the Gentiles." Acts 8:4, 5; 22:21. {GC 328.1} Thus far every specification of the prophecies is strikingly fulfilled, and the beginning of the seventy weeks is fixed beyond question at 457 B.C., and their expiration in A.D. 34. From this data there is no difficulty in finding the termination of the 2300 days. The seventy weeks--490 days--having been cut off from the 2300, there were 1810 days remaining. After the end of 490 days, the 1810 days were still to be fulfilled. From A.D. 34, 1810 years extend to 1844. Consequently the 2300 days of Daniel 8:14 terminate in 1844. At the expiration of this great prophetic period, upon the testimony of the angel of God, "the sanctuary shall be cleansed." Thus the time of the cleansing of the sanctuary--which was almost universally believed to take place at the second advent--was definitely pointed out. {GC 328.2} Ellen White points out all of the major dates and times in that passage related to the prophecies dating Christ's life and death, including the fact that He died in AD 31. Blessings, Green Cochoa. Quote
Green Cochoa Posted December 1, 2013 Posted December 1, 2013 Oh...maybe I understand now. I see now that the one who started this thread also had no answer to my explanation of a part of the prophecy in Daniel presented HERE. Blessings, Green Cochoa. Quote
Samie Posted December 1, 2013 Author Posted December 1, 2013 The astronomical new moon and full moon are not necessarily the new moon and full moon as perceived by the naked eye. ... Quote
Gibs Posted December 1, 2013 Posted December 1, 2013 According to solar and lunar tables posted at the U.S. Naval Observatory web site (http://aa.usno.navy.mil/data/docs/SpringPhenom.html) for A.D. 30, the chart on the previous page shows the position of the Sun and moon, as well as the course of events during Passover in April, A.D. 30, using the Babylonian method for starting a month. Notice how our Julian calendar and the Jewish calendar align so that Sabbath, April 8 is Passover. I think anymore you must be logged in to get to this site above. I used to have a link to get the same information from them but have lost it, it was harder to put together than this one is. Larry Wilson has this chart posted on his site if you can find it, www.wake-up.org But the Jews not of Christ kept Passover on our calendar on April 8 when it should have been April 6, their Passover fell on Sabbath and so was called an "high day." With this I leave you all with it, I am well satisfied and the Jubilee calendar and Adventist reckoning on this is absolutely correct. His Blessings 1Jo 4:4 ¶ Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world. Quote A Freeman In Jesus Christ
Samie Posted December 1, 2013 Author Posted December 1, 2013 Oh...maybe I understand now. I see now that the one who started this thread also had no answer to my explanation of a part of the prophecy in Daniel presented HERE. Blessings, Green Cochoa. Sorry to have not bothered answering your post AGAIN which I have already adequately addressed earlier HERE in this post, in response to a similar inquiry you posted earlier. I thought you had no time reading my posts that addressed your earlier inquiry because you were posting a similar inquiry again. In Christ, Samie Quote
Green Cochoa Posted December 2, 2013 Posted December 2, 2013 Samie, You can't use an interpretation of yours that I have not accepted as proof against the new material that I introduced and which you have yet to address. I don't see any logic in that. I was addressing your points with a discussion of how the interpretation of "cut off" removes the possibility of your interpretation being true. You have yet to address that aspect. Blessings, Green Cochoa. Quote
Samie Posted December 2, 2013 Author Posted December 2, 2013 Bro Green, I have amply shown in this post how the 70 weeks are literal 490 days that will be fulfilled shortly before the Second Coming. And you misapplied the Hebrew "mashiyach" in Dan 9:25, 26 to be Christ our Lord which shows you merely believed in what was popularly taught. Scriptures tell us that the same word "mashiyach" was likewise used in the OT to refer to kings, both Israelite and non-Israelite, like Saul, David, and Cyrus. The "mashiyach" in Dan 9:25, 26 is a future Jewish leader who will enter into a covenant with the beast or the little horn (Dan 9:27; 11:21-32) whose image is the fulfillment of the abomination of desolation, the setting up of which, Jesus said, will trigger the start of the time of trouble or great tribulation (Matt 24:15-22) shortly before the Second Coming. In Christ, Samie Quote
Green Cochoa Posted December 2, 2013 Posted December 2, 2013 Bro Green, I have amply shown in this post how the 70 weeks are literal 490 days that will be fulfilled shortly before the Second Coming. And you misapplied the Hebrew "mashiyach" in Dan 9:25, 26 to be Christ our Lord which shows you merely believed in what was popularly taught. Scriptures tell us that the same word "mashiyach" was likewise used in the OT to refer to kings, both Israelite and non-Israelite, like Saul, David, and Cyrus. The "mashiyach" in Dan 9:25, 26 is a future Jewish leader who will enter into a covenant with the beast or the little horn (Dan 9:27; 11:21-32) whose image is the fulfillment of the abomination of desolation, the setting up of which, Jesus said, will trigger the start of the time of trouble or great tribulation (Matt 24:15-22) shortly before the Second Coming. In Christ, Samie Wow. I have never before heard this version of heresy. To say that the clear words of Scripture, "Messiah the Prince," refer to a modern Jew is just...astonishing. Are you a Jew who believes the Messiah has yet to come? Blessings, Green Cochoa. Quote
Samie Posted December 3, 2013 Author Posted December 3, 2013 Originally Posted By: Samie Bro Green, I have amply shown in this post how the 70 weeks are literal 490 days that will be fulfilled shortly before the Second Coming. And you misapplied the Hebrew "mashiyach" in Dan 9:25, 26 to be Christ our Lord which shows you merely believed in what was popularly taught. Scriptures tell us that the same word "mashiyach" was likewise used in the OT to refer to kings, both Israelite and non-Israelite, like Saul, David, and Cyrus. The "mashiyach" in Dan 9:25, 26 is a future Jewish leader who will enter into a covenant with the beast or the little horn (Dan 9:27; 11:21-32) whose image is the fulfillment of the abomination of desolation, the setting up of which, Jesus said, will trigger the start of the time of trouble or great tribulation (Matt 24:15-22) shortly before the Second Coming. In Christ, Samie Wow. I have never before heard this version of heresy. To say that the clear words of Scripture, "Messiah the Prince," refer to a modern Jew is just...astonishing. Are you a Jew who believes the Messiah has yet to come? Blessings, Green Cochoa. Quote
Green Cochoa Posted December 3, 2013 Posted December 3, 2013 The word translated "Messiah" in Dan 9:25, 26 is from the Hebrew "masiyach", a word translated in other parts of the OT as "anointed" (see 1 Sam 2:10; 12:3,5; 24:6,10; 26:9,11,16,23; 2 Sam 1:14, 16; 22:51; Ps 2:2; 18:50; 20:6; 28:8; 105;15; 132:17; Isa 45:1). It is only in Dan 9 where it is translated into "Messiah" with a capital "M". But it's up to you, brother, if you don't want to study more and just continue believing in what you had been taught. I just did my part of warning you not to blaspheme our Lord & Savior, Jesus Christ. To continue believing that the "masiyach" in Dan 9:25, 26 is our Lord, despite being warned, is blasphemy. This is because the belief also teaches that in v27, it is this same "masiyach" who will confirm the covenant in the midst of the week and that this points to the crucifixion of our Lord. Sadly, this is not the case. Instead, the person who will confirm the covenant is the same person responsible for the setting up of the abomination of desolation which is the image of the beast. Quote: NIV Daniel 9:27 He will confirm a covenant with many for one 'seven.' {27 Or 'week'} In the middle of the 'seven' {27 Or 'week'} he will put an end to sacrifice and offering. And on a wing of the temple he will set up an abomination that causes desolation, until the end that is decreed is poured out on him." Instead of being Christ, this person you were taught to be Christ is in fact an antichrist! That is the dire result of the false teaching that the 70 weeks found fulfillment more than a millennium ago. This setting of the AoD will be fulfilled shortly before our Lord comes again as He Himself told His disciples (Matt 24:15-31). In Christ, Samie Quote
Samie Posted December 3, 2013 Author Posted December 3, 2013 Bro Green; I am not saying our Lord is not Anointed. He is. I am merely pointing out that the "masiyach" in Dan 9 does not refer to our Lord. The "anointed" that points to Him is the one in Isa 61:1 not in Dan 9. Our Lord referred to His anointing from Isaiah as recorded in Luke 4, not from Daniel. His one and only reference to the book of Daniel is when He talked about the signs of His return. In Christ, Samie Quote
Samie Posted December 3, 2013 Author Posted December 3, 2013 This thread is about the full moon evidence. This is presented to show additional evidence that indeed the Lord could not have been crucified on a Friday of either 30 AD or 31 AD. Yes, the Lord was crucified 31 AD. But not on Friday, 27 April 31 AD, because it would mean He ate Passover on a non-full moon night of Thursday, April 26, and that will make Him violate the Law He said He came to fulfill. What more, a Friday crucifixion coupled with a Sunday resurrection - a period of 2 days & 2 nights - could NEVER give justice to the period specified by our Lord Himself - 3 days & 3 nights from crucifixion to resurrection (Matt 12:40). Our Savior came to fulfill the Law, including the Law on Passover, and so He ate Passover on the night the moon was full. That full moon night was the first full moon after the spring equinox of 31 AD and it occurred on Tuesday night, 27 March 31 AD. He was crucified the following day, Wednesday, March 28, 31 AD. And after 3 days & 3 nights, Wednesday daytime - Day 1; Wednesday nighttime - Night 1 Thursday daytime - Day 2; Thursday nighttime - Night 2 Friday daytime - Day 3; Friday nighttime - Night 3 He rose from the grave early morning of Saturday, the chief Sabbath in that paschal week. This the Greek Scriptures in Mark 16:9 delineates. Sadly, the Greek word "sabbatou" in that verse, a word that always referred to "sabbath" in the Greek Old Testament, the Septuagint, was instead translated into "week" to perhaps give a semblance of Scriptural authority to Sunday-keeping by translators who were themselves Sunday-keepers. In Christ, Samie Quote
Green Cochoa Posted December 3, 2013 Posted December 3, 2013 Bro Green; I am not saying our Lord is not Anointed. He is. I am merely pointing out that the "masiyach" in Dan 9 does not refer to our Lord. The "anointed" that points to Him is the one in Isa 61:1 not in Dan 9. Our Lord referred to His anointing from Isaiah as recorded in Luke 4, not from Daniel. His one and only reference to the book of Daniel is when He talked about the signs of His return. In Christ, Samie Quote
Samie Posted December 3, 2013 Author Posted December 3, 2013 Bro Green; I am constrained to tell you this, brother, much as I would not have to. But I think you need it. You are using the term "most holy" in Dan 9:24 as pointing to our Lord? For your information brother, the phrase "most holy" in Dan 9:24 is from the Hebrew word "qodesh". From Strong, qodesh {ko'-desh} Meaning: 1) apartness, holiness, sacredness, separateness 1a) apartness, sacredness, holiness 1a1) of God 1a2) of places 1a3) of things 1b) set-apartness, separateness Origin: from 06942; TWOT - 1990a; n m Usage: AV - holy 262, sanctuary 68, (holy, hallowed,...) things 52, most 44, holiness 30, dedicated 5, hallowed 3, consecrated 1, misc 3; 468 You see, the same Hebrew term had been translated and used in different ways. If people believe you, then each time they encounter the term "most holy", which occurs 45 times in the OT, it refers to our Lord? Your application of the term to our Lord is quite a very narrow study, if not biased, brother. In Christ, Samie Quote
Green Cochoa Posted December 3, 2013 Posted December 3, 2013 Samie, Let me use a small English example to illustrate what may happen with any language, including Hebrew or Greek. Look at the English usage of "to take" (in several forms) in the following: The boat took on water. I took it to mean he was confused. He took our money. He got taken for a ride. Have you taken the test yet? Have you taken a photo with her? I won't take no for an answer. Take your time. When he saw it, he took a double take. * * * Now, of course this example is imperfect, being in English, and not Hebrew. But the word for which you have provided a definition from Hebrew has multiple meanings as well. Did you notice that? How foolish it would be to presume that each usage of the term would be translated the same way into English. As for Christ being represented as "holy," or even as "holy holy," we find that the Bible supports Him as being exactly this. And to teachers I would say, Beware how you sow the seeds of unbelief in human hearts and minds. Cleanse yourselves from all filthiness of the flesh and spirit. The crowning glory of Christ's attributes is His holiness. The angels bow before Him in adoration, exclaiming, "Holy, holy, holy, Lord God Almighty." Revelation 4:8. He is declared to be glorious in His holiness. Study the character of God. By beholding Christ, by seeking Him in faith and prayer, you may become like Him. {CT 402.2} Quote
Samie Posted December 4, 2013 Author Posted December 4, 2013 Originally Posted By: Samie This thread is about the full moon evidence. This is presented to show additional evidence that indeed the Lord could not have been crucified on a Friday of either 30 AD or 31 AD. Yes, the Lord was crucified 31 AD. But not on Friday, 27 April 31 AD, because it would mean He ate Passover on a non-full moon night of Thursday, April 26, and that will make Him violate the Law He said He came to fulfill. What more, a Friday crucifixion coupled with a Sunday resurrection - a period of 2 days & 2 nights - could NEVER give justice to the period specified by our Lord Himself - 3 days & 3 nights from crucifixion to resurrection (Matt 12:40). Our Savior came to fulfill the Law, including the Law on Passover, and so He ate Passover on the night the moon was full. That full moon night was the first full moon after the spring equinox of 31 AD and it occurred on Tuesday night, 27 March 31 AD. He was crucified the following day, Wednesday, March 28, 31 AD. And after 3 days & 3 nights, Wednesday daytime - Day 1; Wednesday nighttime - Night 1 Thursday daytime - Day 2; Thursday nighttime - Night 2 Friday daytime - Day 3; Friday nighttime - Night 3 He rose from the grave early morning of Saturday, the chief Sabbath in that paschal week. This the Greek Scriptures in Mark 16:9 delineates. Sadly, the Greek word "sabbatou" in that verse, a word that always referred to "sabbath" in the Greek Old Testament, the Septuagint, was instead translated into "week" to perhaps give a semblance of Scriptural authority to Sunday-keeping by translators who were themselves Sunday-keepers. In Christ, Samie Re: <<He ate Passover>> Incorrect, and if you corrected this error of yours you will see it collapsing in every respect. Not <<Our Saviour>> but the Jews, <<ate Passover on the night the moon was full.>> ... And therefore, you are saying, our Savior violated the Passsover Law by NOT keeping it on the right time, while the Jews kept it right on the dot? I don't think so, brother. Our Savior said He came to fulfill the Law, and that includes the Passover Law. He ate Passover the night the moon was full, right on time. The Jews kept it a day late. In Christ, Samie Quote
Samie Posted December 4, 2013 Author Posted December 4, 2013 The firstfruits of grain offered on the first Sunday after Passover is barley. This is why Passover is celebrated in the month Abib. Abib is the Hebrew term that refers to the stage of ripening of barley grain where it can be harvested in two weeks. This explains why in the plague of hail (Num 9:23-32), the barley was smitten because it was 'abib' (already in the ear), but the wheat was not, because it was.'apilot' (lateripening or dark). see Num 9:31, 32. But just because barley is the sheaf offering of the firstfruits waved before the Lord on the first Sunday after Passover is it reason enough to conclude that Christ as firstfruits of the dead need to be resurrected on Sunday? Holders of this view seem to have failed to notice that Scriptures speak of different firstfruits offerings : there is the firstfruits of thy labours (Ex 23:16), firstfruits of thy land (Ex 23:19), firstfruits of wheat harvest (Ex 34:22), firstfruits of corn, wine, and oil, and honey, and of all the increase of the field (2Ch 31:5); firstfruits of the ground, the firstfruits of all fruit of all trees (Neh 10:35), the firstfruits of oblations (Ez 20:40), and even firstfruits of all things (Ez 44:30). So why zero in on the firstfruits of grain harvest and use it as basis for the day when Christ resurrected in the absence of Scriptural endorsement for such parallelism? God has given us the full moon to pinpoint the night Our Lord ate Passover and was crucified the daytime that came. All we do next is count 3 days and 3 nights from His crucifixion, and we are where He resurrected: early morning before sunrise of Saturday, the chief Sabbath in that paschal week, as Mark 16:9 in Greek Scriptures delineates. In Christ, Samie Quote
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