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Unfortunately, I have a problem with the explanation. What I could take from it is that we cannot really know what the Bible means by even reading it in it's original language, because it may mean something else. It would seriously undermine confidence in the Bible. This opens up the Bible to be reinterpreted in whatever way one would choose to want it to mean. And it could even be an opening to some serious heresies. We could even get to a view like that liberal viewpoint of the Constitution where they want to call it a "living document" and subject to whatever meaning some liberal judge wants to get out of it at the moment. This is how somethings can get changed to support an unBiblical idea. For instance, one person in the Bible (Junia) who Paul called a fellow prisoner, is made out to be a female and even, voila!, an ordained person! So, modern Hebrew may have to change over time to add modern changes such as the names of things not in existence in Biblical times, but I cannot imagine a verse from the Bible meaning something different today than when it was written.

Languages change over time. Ancient Greek exists in several dated forms which differ from modern Greek today. Both ancient and modern Greek differ from Biblical Greek. Modern Hebrew differs from Biblical Hebrew. The English language of today differs from the English used by the KJV in 1611. Most of us would have a hard time reading the Bible in 1611 English. My point: Beware of anyone who attempts to understand the Hebrew Old Testament in terms of their knowledge of modern Hebrew, or of anyone who attempts to understand the Greek New Testament in terms of modern Greek. These differences generally include grammar, vocabulary, sentence structure and the meanings of words.