What does the Bible mean in Galatians 4:4...?

[olger]

Jesus was "made under the law." What does that mean by George?

thx

g

[Guest]

Before the first coming of Christ, it seemed as if the world were wholly given into the control of the enemy. "But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth His Son, . . . to redeem them which were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons." All heaven was interested in this great event. At the appointed time the Instructor appeared. Who was He?--The Son of God Himself, the eternal Word. He came to give the world an evidence of the love of God by dying for the fallen race. He gathered to His own pure, sinless soul the penalty resting upon the sinful race, and offered Himself as a sacrifice. Thus was revealed the love of God, and thus was revealed also the immutability of God's law. Not a jot or a tittle of this law could be changed to meet man in his fallen condition. But sinners were not left without hope, to die in transgression. A ransom was found. Christ became their substitute and surety. Upon Him were laid "the iniquities of us all." Those who receive Him as their Saviour are freely granted pardon, and become members of the royal family. {ST, December 14, 1904}

But if ye be led of the Spirit, ye are not under the law. Gal 5:18

[skyblue888]

But was not Christ led by the Spirit and yet it is still said that He was "made under the law." To begin with He was born under the great law of heredity. He took human nature after 4,000 years of degeneration.

"That He might meet men just where men are and be a complete Deliverer, He Himself came to men where they are, and was made like men where they are. Therefore, He was made to be sin. 'For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him.' 2 Cor.5:21.

He was made to be sin, just as the transgressor is sin: He bore the sins of men, 'for the Lord has hath laid on Him the iniquities of us all.' He took the condemnation, because the sins of the transgressor were imputed to Him. And, as to the transgressor himself, the consciousness of sin is accompanied with the consciousness of guilt and condemnation: so when these sins were imputed to Him who knew no sin, it was the sin indeed, with its accompanying sense of guilt and condemnation. He bore the curse, for sin brings the curse; and He bore the curse even unto death.

Thus, 'Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us.' Thus He redeems them that are under the law. All the penalty, all the curse, allt he wrath, all the condemnation, that the law can work upon the transgressor met upon Him. And, in the divine sacrifice which He thus made, there was rendered all that the law can ever demand of the transgressor. So that everything that can possibly stand between the transgressor and God is swept away in the sacrifice of Christ." A.T. Jones, Studies in Galatians, p.112.

That is why the merits of that sacrifice are so great that the Father receives unto Himself as we appropriate them by faith for "The merits of Jesus blot out transgressions and clothe us with the robe of righteousness woven in the loom of Heaven." Evangelism, p.186.

And His righteousness is made manifest in obedience to all the commandments of God. See T.M.92.

sky

[wayfinder]

The problem is, you are using Paul's words.

Ro 5:6

For while we were still helpless, at the right time Christ died for the ungodly.

1Ti 1:9

realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers

Christ died for the ungodly. If you are a godly person He did not die for you.

[Guest]

You can't be a Godly person without Jesus' life and death.

For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; Rom 3:23

Are you saying you have never sinned? Okay then he had to die for you too.

If we say that we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us. 1Jo 1:10

[wayfinder]

1 John 1:8-10 If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar and His word is not in us.

RH, don't "cut and paste" scripture, your are better than that. What John says is that we have sin, which incidently does not make us ungodly. We are to confess our sin and He will cleanes us to the point where we have no sin, He will cleanse us from "all" unrighteousness, that would make us righteous. If righteousness were a gift than our sins would be covered by the righteousness of Christ; but John says our confessed sins are removed from us, this is the responsibility and function of the High Priest.

[Guest]

Without the blood of Jesus they could not be removed or forgiven. there would be no sacrifice. What are you going to do kill a goat?

[wayfinder]

I agree, with the blood of Jesus not the goat, but that does not apply to my post.

The ungodly are those who willfully choose to keep themselves separate from God.

The Son of God died for His kingdom, I would hardly call them ungodly, sinful yes, but not ungodly. Christ died so that through His blood He is able to cleanse us from all sin.

Heb 9:12

and not through the blood of goats and calves, but through His own blood, He entered the holy place once for all, having obtained eternal redemption.

[Twilight]

Jesus was the second Adam.

He came into the world connected to God.

His temptation was to take His divine nature and use it for His own benefit, which would have been outside of the will of the Father.

Mark :-)

[Gerr]

Jesus was "made under the law." What does that mean by George?

One thing it could not mean - under condemnation, since He did not sin.

To me it means that being born a man, a Jew, He was bound by all the things the Law required.

PS: What do you mean by, "What does that mean by George?"

[olger]

Thanks, Y'all.

g

[olger]

Originally Posted By: olger

Jesus was "made under the law." What does that mean by George?

One thing it could not mean - under condemnation, since He did not sin.

To me it means that being born a man, a Jew, He was bound by all the things the Law required.

PS: What do you mean by, "What does that mean by George?"

Sorry, it's an exclamatory phrase. Possibly an Americanized version of "By Jove".

by G

[BobRyan]

Romans 6 "we are no longer under law but under grace".

Gal 4:4 "Jesus was born under the law".

In these contexts "under the law" means under the God-ordained mandate of law as revealed in places like Romans 3 and Galatians 3. Law "binds all the world" - it obligates all mankind in all of time - to obey or suffer the curse of the 2nd death.

Christ was born under the law and perfectly satisfied it's highest most exaulted requirements - in our place so that we (the lost) might find salvation. He also did this as our (the saved saints) example that we might life unto Him and "walk as He waled" as John says in 1John 2.

in Christ,

Bob

[BobRyan]

"by Jove" is a reference to the false god "Jupiter". The moons of the planet Jupiter are known as "Jovian moons".

in Christ,

Bob

[olger]

Ooops,

I repent.

g

[LifeHiscost]

If you are a godly person He did not die for you.

Which more or less, on those terms, indicates Jesus died for all.

"If ye then, being evil, know how to give good gifts unto your children, how much more shall your Father which is in heaven give good things to them that ask him?" Matthew 7:11 KJV

"For Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit"1 Peter 3:18 NASB

Blessings!

[LifeHiscost]

1 John 1:8-10 If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us. If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar and His word is not in us.

RH, don't "cut and paste" scripture, your are better than that. What John says is that we have sin, which incidently does not make us ungodly. We are to confess our sin and He will cleanes us to the point where we have no sin, He will cleanse us from "all" unrighteousness, that would make us righteous. If righteousness were a gift than our sins would be covered by the righteousness of Christ; but John says our confessed sins are removed from us, this is the responsibility and function of the High Priest.

I find that when people feel capable of making the bible more understandable than God, Who prepared its' meanings especially through the leading of the Holy Spirit as given to His servants the prophets, it has a way of diluting its' impact to the minimal level of the sinner who believes himself capable of explaining what it means.

"He said to him, If they do not hear and listen to Moses and the Prophets, neither will they be persuaded and convinced and believe [even] if someone should rise from the dead."Luke 16:31 KJV

"The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants—things which must shortly take place. And He sent and signified it by His angel to His servant John, who bore witness to the word of God, and to the testimony of Jesus Christ, to all things that he saw. Blessed is he who reads and those who hear the words of this prophecy, and keep those things which are written in it; for the time is near." Rev 1:1-3 NKJV

"Not many of you should presume to be teachers, my brothers, because you know that we who teach will be judged more strictly."James 3:1 NIV

Regards!

[LifeHiscost]

Ooops,

I repent.

g

Ahhh the humor of it all. I was just waiting for the right post so I could go out with the stress overtaken by a lighter note.

Blessings!

[BobRyan]

The problem is, you are using Paul's words.

Ro 5:6

For while we were still helpless, at the right time Christ died for the ungodly.

1Ti 1:9

realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers

Christ died for the ungodly. If you are a godly person He did not die for you.

Indeed - if you were born sinless and had no sin - no need of a savior ... if you were accounted by the Law of God as "godly" instead of "all the world held accountable" and found to be condemned to the 2nd death (the way Rom 3 and Gal 3 state the case) then indeed - Christ did not die for you -- for you would not need it.

"context" is everything in exegesis..

in Christ,

Bob

[Guest]

That's a good way say it Bob. I find myself at a loss for words sometimes with statements like his.

[Twilight]

"Not many of you should presume to be teachers, my brothers, because you know that we who teach will be judged more strictly."James 3:1 NIV

Regards!

Humbling thought...

But what if you have been given the gift of teaching?

[LifeHiscost]

Originally Posted By: LifeHiscost

"Not many of you should presume to be teachers, my brothers, because you know that we who teach will be judged more strictly."James 3:1 NIV

Regards!

Humbling thought...

But what if you have been given the gift of teaching?

Perhaps the Word "presume" would help to explain the details. It would most likely move us to a position of knowing whether we were actually called of the Lord to teach, as opposed to thinking so highly of ourselves we assume that calling without verification by the Holy Spirit.

I would suppose verification could be arrived at, at least to some extent, by a knowledge of this sort.

"But the fruit of the [Holy] Spirit [the work which His presence within accomplishes] is love, joy (gladness), peace, patience (an even temper, forbearance), kindness, goodness (benevolence), faithfulness,

Gentleness (meekness, humility), self-control (self-restraint, continence). Against such things there is no law [that can bring a charge]."Gal 5:22,23 AMP

parenthesis, brackets theirs, underlined mine LHC

Blessings!

[Twilight]

Originally Posted By: Twilight

Humbling thought...

But what if you have been given the gift of teaching? [/quote']

Perhaps the Word "presume" would help to explain the details. It would most likely move us to a position of knowing whether we were actually called of the Lord to teach, as opposed to thinking so highly of ourselves we assume that calling without verification by the Holy Spirit.

I would suppose verification could be arrived at, at least to some extent, by a knowledge of this sort.

"But the fruit of the [Holy] Spirit [the work which His presence within accomplishes] is love, joy (gladness), peace, patience (an even temper, forbearance), kindness, goodness (benevolence), faithfulness,

Gentleness (meekness, humility), self-control (self-restraint, continence). Against such things there is no law [that can bring a charge]."Gal 5:22,23 AMP

parenthesis, brackets theirs, underlined mine LHC

Blessings!

It is a good point, you have to have learned before you can teach...

But you can also be learning whilst learning to teach. :-)

[Woody]

Twilight said:

Quote:

Jesus was the second Adam

Redwood asks:

Was He the second Adam Adam or the second Woman Adam or both?

Quote:

Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created. Genesis 5:2.

[mickbaker]

His concern was not manhood or womanhood, but in what Adam did for the whole race, he was able to do for the whole race. In that Adam (the couple) was able to sin and propagate sinners, Christ was able to reverse and provide the end of sin for all who follow him.

Its more about holiness which produces wholeness .