wendys Posted May 31, 2014 Posted May 31, 2014 Samie, It has to be that the number refers to a single individual. The reason has to do with the Bible definitions provided for us in Daniel 7, which tells us that beasts are BOTH kings and kingdoms. Notice that in Revelation 13:18 following the words "a man," it says that "his number is 666." Now, the word translated as "his" can also be translated as "their" which would make sense only IF the word for "a man" really is just "man", meaning a group rather than an individual. The problem with that idea here is that Revelation 13, in its discussion of the beast in verses 1-10, seems to be primarily referring to the king of the beast rather than the entire kingdom, though it is true that the beast symbolizes both. Therefore, verse 18 should also be referring primarily to the king of the beast. Now, you can consider that we are told that the end events will be very rapid (EGW said this), so its very unlikely that this "man" is referring to more than one pope because these events will take place very rapidly and the end will then be here very soon after when Jesus comes again. Thus, once things get started, its very likely that only one pope will be there in office, the one to whom the number 666 applies. Consequently, its virtually guaranteed that while it is true that the article "a" is not in the Greek text of Revelation 13:18 in front of the word man, the verse is correct with the article inserted because it really does refer to just "a man" and does not refer to "man" in general. The Bible definitions and the time elements show this to be true. Quote
Samie Posted May 31, 2014 Posted May 31, 2014 wendys, Yes, we are on one side of the fence on this issue of the number of a man. Should you be interested in my position relative to eschatology, you can check my views in the Daniel 11 thread starting IN MY POST HERE. Quote
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