Robert Posted March 9, 2005 Author Posted March 9, 2005 Quote: Nothing about the first four commandments of the moral law, why? Under the New Covenant "faith" in Christ fulfills the first four. As a result the believer begins to reflect Christ....Not that we are perfectly reflecting Him, rather it is something we aim for through faith. Our eyes are on Christ and His matchless love. That's what I believe it means by the law of Christ. Read Romans 2:14 (Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law, 15 since they show that the requirements of the law are written on their heart.... You must remember that the Gentiles had no knowledge of God. Those who accepted God did so through what was made (see Romans 1:20)....They only knew that something outside of themselves was responsible for the creation of this world. They had no idea or reference to the 7th-day Sabbath....They still had idols (see Acts 17:23-26) My point is that the law written on the heart is related to our neighbors. No one needs to tell you've done wrong if you kill or commit adultery....We naturally know after conversion. Therefore it is the PRINICIPLE of the last six commandments that are written on the heart! Quote
DaveM1936 Posted March 10, 2005 Posted March 10, 2005 I find your answer confusing. Of course David cannot stop sinning. On the other hand, Christ cannot sin. If Christ is in me, then I cannot sin. However, He will stay in me only on long as I want Him to. I do not agree that we are freed in stages. Freedom comes all at once. What occurs in states is not our freedom, but the character transformation by the Holy Spirit. But we belong to Christ during this entire experience. You seem to confuse justification and sanctification. Justification delivers us from sin, Satan, and slavery. Sanctification is the process of recreating the character of Christ in us. Quote: Now when we do that we will make progress, but please do not forget that we are missing the mark, we are falling short. That means we are never fully measuring up…never! Of course not! Our salvation never depends on OUR performance. It depends on us allowing Christ to perform in us. I see this as a non-issue. Here are the dictionary definitions for obedience (law keeping): - compliance - submission - conforming to commands or authority - yeilding willingly to another person or law - allowing someone else to control your actions All of these definitions do not tell us why one would comply or submit, even if willingly. Am I afraid of the consequences if I do not conform? Do I want to maintain my reputation? Do I obey because I will gain something for obeying? God's law = God's character = love for God and everyone and everything else. So obedience could be defined as loving others as we used to love ourselves. True love has no barriers. Selfishness (all sins come under this heading) puts up many barriers to prevent healthy, satisifying relationships. Sin disrupts. Love brings peace between people. Sin works to tear down and destroy. Love works to build up and give life. Obedience is always other centered. Our own salvation comes to us as a gift. It includes the work Jesus did for us on earth and His death and resurrection. Also included is the work the Holy Spirit does in us to recreate us to be able to love as God loves. Obedience, then, is naturally using this love to motivate us to do all we can to help and bless others. Obedience is never forced by God. He accepts no service prompted by fear. God has a large family. He loves bringing beings into existence. What He wants from us is to live in peace with the entire universe. He wants us to care for and love all our brothers and sisters in close, intimate relationships. "To Him nothing was without purpose. The sports of the child, the toils of the man, life's pleasures and cares and pains, all were means to the end--the revelation of God for the uplifting of humanity." {Ed 82.5} Your friend, Dave M Quote
Robert Posted March 10, 2005 Author Posted March 10, 2005 Quote: If Christ is in me, then I cannot sin....I do not agree that we are freed in stages. Freedom comes all at once. Remember 1 John 1:8??? Rob Quote
LifeHiscost Posted March 10, 2005 Posted March 10, 2005 Quote: Therefore "The law of Christ" does not refer to the 10 commandments, although there are some similarities. [:"red"] "If you keep My commandments, you will abide in My love, just as I have kept My Father's commandments and abide in His love." [/] John 15:10 NKJV How does one keep commandments the same, that are not the same? Lift Jesus up!! Quote Lift Jesus up!!
Robert Posted March 10, 2005 Author Posted March 10, 2005 Quote: Quote: Therefore "The law of Christ" does not refer to the 10 commandments, although there are some similarities. "If you keep My commandments, you will abide in My love, just as I have kept My Father's commandments and abide in His love." John 15:10 NKJV How does one keep commandments the same, that are not the same? Lift Jesus up!! Lift up Jesus, huh? It sounds like you are lifting up the law!?! Anyway, to answer your question...of what commands is Christ speaking? Context: Command # 1] "Abide in Me, and I in you." Command # 2] “This is My command, that you love one another, like I have loved you." Then He makes a profound statement: “Greater love has no one than this, that one lay down his life for his friends." Jesus knows and understands our limited love [hence we fall short of God's love]! You see you might die for a good friend, but Jesus was willing to lay down His life for eternity so that His enemies could take His place in heaven!!!! If you don't buy this argument go to Romans 5:6 For while we were still helpless, at the right time Christ died for the ungodly. 7 For one will hardly die for a just man [i.e., a fair man]; though perhaps for a good man someone would dare even to die. 8 But [in complete contrast to our human love] God demonstrates His own love toward us, in that while we were yet sinners, Christ died for us.....10 while we were enemies, we were reconciled to God.... Quote
benherndon Posted March 10, 2005 Posted March 10, 2005 Quote: "If you keep My commandments, you will abide in My love, just as I have kept My Father's commandments and abide in His love." John 15:10 NKJV How does one keep commandments the same, that are not the same? >>>>LHC, I think one way of thinking about all this is to realize that (1) Jesus was a Jew and born into and raised as a Jew. The Law of MOses was made for Jews and nobody else. Christ, being a Jew, and NOT YET HAVING MADE HIS SACRIFICE ON THE CROSS, was obligated to keep the Old Covenant. He was living in what is still the Mosaic Era that would not cease until His death and resurrection----maybe????? I am a gentile and have never been knowingly a Jew. The Law of Moses was NOT given to the gentiles, nor meant for them!! Point (2)--If one keeps reading John 15, the next verses say this, "And my command is this: love each other as I have loved you........This is my command [once again!]Love each other." (3)---Paul has told us that if we keep any of the law we must keep it all. There is no division of 'the Law' into moral and ceremonial!! This is an erroneous conception as far as Biblical comments are concerned. If one insists on a partition of 'the Law', then, the weekly Sabbath is actually one of the ceremonial days as is shown in Lev 23. (4)---If 'the Law' is 'done away', 'faded', 'has no glory', 'abolished' as it says in 2Cor 3----that means in 'authority' for the 'believer, the Christian, we find in further study and reading that it is 'replaced' by Christ's Law which is an abbreviation for loving God and man, and believing that He was/is the Son of God, raised from death, and will come back again to redeem His own, we will be saved. Believing in this is what 'obeying the Gospel' is. And the gospel as outlined in the NT is replete with the goal/guides as to how we should strive to live as humans on this planet in relationship to God and to each other.(See Col 3) It is essential in one's mental accession to this idea that one realize 'the Law of Moses' is NOT Christ's Law and that is very hard for a traditional SDA to grab hold of and embrace mentally due to our long time programming into interpreting the Bible through the mind of Ellen White. I have stated, in many posts, my level of regard for Ellen White--I hope I don't have to go into that again. Some people attempt to put into my mouth their explanation of my relationship to Ellen White. That is wrong and it is not fair to either her or me. It usually means to me that those people don't know either Ellen White OR the Bible very well---a very common situation in the pews of Adventism, I've discovered. I WAS one of those prior to the 1970's--still don't know enough, that's for sure. Ben Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted March 11, 2005 Moderators Posted March 11, 2005 Quote: Of course David cannot stop sinning. On the other hand, Christ cannot sin. If Christ is in me, then I cannot sin. [:"blue"]That is the truth & power of the gospel. Thanks. [/] Gerry Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted March 11, 2005 Moderators Posted March 11, 2005 Quote: The Law of MOses was made for Jews and nobody else. [:"blue"]It is written: [:"red"]"One law shall be for the native-born and for the stranger who dwells among you." Ex 12:47 NKJ. "And if a stranger dwells with you, or whoever is among you throughout your generations, and would present an offering made by fire, a sweet aroma to the LORD, just as you do, so shall he do. One ordinance shall be for you of the assembly AND for the stranger who dwells with you, an ordinance forever throughout your generations; [:"blue"]as you are, so shall the stranger be before the LORD. [/]ONE LAW and ONE CUSTOM shall be for you and for the stranger who dwells with you." Num 15:14-16 NKJ[/] [/] Gerry Quote
benherndon Posted March 11, 2005 Posted March 11, 2005 And your point is------? The 'stranger WITHIN thy gates'-----does not apply to the other peoples of the world OUTSIDE the gates of the Jew. Have you read this: "He has revealed his word to Jacob, his laws and decrees to Israel. HE HAS DONE THIS FOR NO OTHER NATION; THEY DO NOT KNOW HIS LAWS. Praise the Lord."--Ps 147 There are other comments saying similarly. Look them up. Don't let that 'veil' cover your heart.--2Cor 3. The NT is our Authourity now---the OT is not our Authority now! Jesus fulfilled "..the Law and the Prophets". Not one jot or title will away UNTIL all be fulfilled. "ALL" was fulfilled when He was resurrected. It is agreed by Biblical scholars that the book of Matthew was written specifically to the Jews of his time. He has to be a little careful extolling the MAJOR changes coming to their long established belief and trust in that the Old Covenant Laws would 'save' them. Keeping on with reading the NT opens up one's mind to what has and will happen. "The Law did not encourage obedience; it merely magnified disobedience. The Law indicated the sickness; grace brought about the cure!"--Yancey Ben Quote
DaveM1936 Posted March 11, 2005 Posted March 11, 2005 Quote: Remember 1 John 1:8??? I Jn 1:6-10 6 If we claim to have fellowship with him yet walk in the darkness, we lie and do not live by the truth. 7 But if we walk in the light, as he is in the light, we have fellowship with one another, and the blood of Jesus, his Son, purifies us from all sin. 8 If we claim to be without sin, we deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us. 9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins and purify us from all unrighteousness. 10 If we claim we have not sinned, we make him out to be a liar and his word has no place in our lives. (NIV) You have an apparent contradiction in these verses. On the one hand, all of us are sinners. IF we claim not to be sinners, we are lying. On the other hand, He promises to purify us from all unrighteousness. I Jn 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God. (KJV) How do we solve this delimma? Is a Christian sinless or sinful? I often here people say, "I sin every day." Yet the text plainly says that those who are born again cannot sin. The key word in the first text is "fellowship". Since Christ cannot sin, we will not sin as long as we are fellowshiping with Him. Unless we delvelop a relationship with Christ, we are sinners. Christ will not force Himelf on us. I can walk with Him (who is light) today. But tomorrow I may get out of bed and decide to go it alone. Maybe we need a definition of sin. Sin is choosing to separate from God, the source of life. We choose to live our lives without God. Of course this is impossible because apart from God, we have no life. Sin is the opposite of love. It destroys, creates damage, hates, uses other people. It leaves ruin and death wherever it goes. Your friend, Dave M Quote
benherndon Posted March 11, 2005 Posted March 11, 2005 There is a fair amount of hyperbole in the Bible including the NT. Remember it is being written by men---nothing in the Bible anywhere other than perhaps the Tablets of Stone at Sinai that are written or quoted perfectly by men. One has to be perceptive and have perspicacity--which I wish i had a lot more of. Every body all the time as long as he lives is never without making mistakes in one way or another whether he believes in God and His Son and that He was raised from death, whether he loves God and his fellow men or not! If we are to ever in this life be 'without sin' it is a Gift. We are declared what we are NOT! He becomes what we ARE that we might become like HIM. But this is the way of belief, faith and trust--not the way of humanly observed literalness. Nobody keeps any law perfectly, ever, in action, intent and thought! --in this life, that is! Ben Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted March 11, 2005 Moderators Posted March 11, 2005 Quote: And your point is------? [:"blue"]My point is that God is NO respecter of persons. What's good for the Jew is good for the Bens & Gerrys of the world! [/] Quote: The 'stranger WITHIN thy gates'-----does not apply to the other peoples of the world OUTSIDE the gates of the Jew. [:"blue"]Soooo, the Gentile who becomes a believer only obeys the law when he is with Jews, but once he is outside his gates, he the believing Gentile is free to live like a Gentile? Amazing bit of reasoning!!! [/] Quote: Have you read this: "He has revealed his word to Jacob, his laws and decrees to Israel. HE HAS DONE THIS FOR NO OTHER NATION; THEY DO NOT KNOW HIS LAWS. Praise the Lord."--Ps 147 There are other comments saying similarly. Look them up. [:"red"] "By your descendants all the nations of the earth shall be blessed." Gen 26:4 NASB. [:"blue"]And how were they to bless the rest of the world except to share their knowledge of God which was the Torah? [:"red"]"See, I have taught you statutes and judgments just as the LORD my God commanded me, .... for that is your wisdom & your understanding in the sight of the peoples who will hear all these statutes and say, 'Surely this great nation is a wise and understanding people.'" Dt 4:5,6 NASB. [/] But what did the Israelites do? They thought as you are thinking now, i.e. that the law was meant only for them. [/] Quote: Don't let that 'veil' cover your heart.--2Cor 3. The NT is our Authourity now---the OT is not our Authority now! Jesus fulfilled "..the Law and the Prophets". Not one jot or title will away UNTIL all be fulfilled. "ALL" was fulfilled when He was resurrected. It is agreed by Biblical scholars that the book of Matthew was written specifically to the Jews of his time. He has to be a little careful extolling the MAJOR changes coming to their long established belief and trust in that the Old Covenant Laws would 'save' them. Keeping on with reading the NT opens up one's mind to what has and will happen. [:"blue"]You might also ask yourself if the veil may not be over your eyes? When Jesus preached, where did His message & authority come from? After His resurrection, how did He prove that His passion & resurrection was all planned? When He was tempted & confronted by the devil, where did He get his strength from? It was of course the Torah! That body of divine instructions you are desperately trying to get rid off! On the day of Pentecost when Peter got up to preach, did he preach from the KJV or NJB new testament? Would you believe he preached from one of the minor prophets? And the Psalms? See Acts 2. And when Peter preached again in Acts 3, where was his authority from? Of course, the Torah again! And when Stephen preached his powerful sermon, out of what did he preach from? From the NT KJV? NJB? NASB? Noooooooo! But of course from the OT that you say no longer applies! See Acts 6,7. When Philip shared the Good News with the Ethiopian, guess what book preached from? Why of course the OT that you say has been abolished! See Acts 8. When dissension arose among the disciples about the gospel that Paul & Barnabas were preaching, how did they settle the matter? Why of course by quoting from the OT! Read what James had to say in Acts 15. And when Paul gave his parting message when he was in Rome, what was his source material? Why of course, "both the Law of Moses & from the Prophets," & Isaiah. See Acts 28:23,25. Read how many times Paul refer to the OT in his magnum opus his letter to the Romans. Or how many times he quotes the OT in his letter to the Corinthians. Or to the rest of his letters!!! [/] Quote: "The Law did not encourage obedience; it merely magnified disobedience. The Law indicated the sickness; grace brought about the cure!"--Yancey Ben [:"blue"]And what was the cure that Grace brought to the disobedient? Take the whole standard away, as Robert advocates? Or take the whole Torah & the whole OT away including the 10c but reinstitute 9/10 & leave out the 4th because it is Jewish as you have been reiterating over & over again? The cure? [:"red"]"For the grace of God that brings salvation has appeared to all men. It teaches US to say "NO" to ungodliness [disobedience] and worldly passions, and to live self-controlled, upright [obedient living] & godly lives in this present age, while we wait for the blessed hope - the glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ..." Titus 2:11-13 NIV. [/] [/] Gerry Quote
Robert Posted March 11, 2005 Author Posted March 11, 2005 Quote: Maybe we need a definition of sin. The essence of sin is self-love, period! If you are not loving your neighbor as you naturally love yourself, then you are sinning! Now I know you won't buy this....Most say, "No, we must love ourselves first, then we can learn to love our neighbors." This might sound legitimate, but it is a lie! In fact it is Satanic! However, instead of arguing the point I'll do what Paul finally did after getting nowhere with the Greeks....Do you know what he decided? Simply this: I am determined to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ, and Him crucified. Why did Paul look to the cross? Because it was there that he saw genuine selfless, agape love. It was there that the spirit of the law was fulfilled....It was there where we see the Son of Man giving up not only the riches of heaven for eternity, but also giving up His Deity....In other words the cross proved that Jesus loves His enemies more than Himself. Quote: “The Saviour lived not to please Himself. In His life there was not trace of selfishness. Though in a world that He himself had created, He claimed no part of it as His home. "Foxes have holes, and the birds of the air have nests," He said; "but the Son of man hath not where to lay His head." [EGW] So if you want to continue to deceive yourself that you are actually "cleansed from all unrighteousness" - i.e., that you are actually sinless, then I ask you to look to the cross!!!! When Paul did this he counted all his attainments (including his law-keeping) as dung! [see Phil. chapter 3] I for one am sick and tired of Adventists and their self-righteous attitude….None of us are “keeping the law”! Oh yes, we keep parts of it….We might even keep the letter of the law, but none of us are “keeping the law” as did Christ. For one He never sinned. For seconds He lived a life free from “self” and therefore He kept the whole law (both the spirit and the letter) If you desire to refute this and defend your righteousness, then I ask you to do it in the light of the cross of Christ…. Let me leave you something to ponder: Perfection through our own good works we can never attain. The soul who sees Jesus by faith, repudiates his own righteousness. He sees himself as incomplete [sinful, although growing], his repentance insufficient, his strongest faith but feebleness, his most costly sacrifice as meager, and he sinks in humility at the foot of the cross. But a voice speaks to him from the oracles of God's Word. In amazement he hears the message, "Ye are complete in Him." Now all is at rest in his soul. No longer must he strive to find some worthiness in himself….” Quote
Robert Posted March 11, 2005 Author Posted March 11, 2005 Quote: Quote: The Law of MOses was made for Jews and nobody else. "ONE LAW and ONE CUSTOM shall be for you and for the stranger who dwells with you." Ben, here Gerry is right....The law wasn't just for the Jews, it was for all men. Yes, the Jews entered the O.C. - yes the law was given them, but this doesn't mean it is just for the Jews. The law, says Paul, condemns all men! (See Rom 3:19,20) Quote
DaveM1936 Posted March 12, 2005 Posted March 12, 2005 A Christian has two natures. First, the one he was born with. Second, the new one the Holy Spirit rereacted. No where did I say I or anyone else is sinless. AS LONG AS Christ is in me, my new nature is in control. It can do the biddings of the Holy Spirit. But I am always free to open the car door and ask Jesus to get out. Or at the minimum, ask Him to let me drive. In either case, He will allow me the freedom of choice to carry out what I want. He is not pushy. Then the old sinful nature is back in control. MY SALVATION is a GIFT FROM BEGINNING TO END. It is the HOly Spirit's work to install in me the character of Christ. Any effort I make toward my own salvation will only interfer with the work Christ wants to do in me. My part is to be in a "yes, Lord" frame of mind. "All the varied capabilities that men possess--of mind and soul and body--are given them by God, to be so employed as to reach the highest possible degree of excellence. But this cannot be a selfish and exclusive culture; [:"red"] for the character of God, whose likeness we are to receive, is benevolence and love. [/] Every faculty, every attribute, with which the Creator has endowed us is to be employed for His glory and for the uplifting of our fellow men. And in this employment is found its purest, noblest, and happiest exercise." {PP 595.3} Christ's whole purpose in coming to earth was to demostrate to us the revelation of the character of God. Humanity can only be restored to the original purpose God intended for the race through this knowledge of the character of God. As we receive the character of God through the Holy Spirit, as we are recreated, then we will obey; that is, we will work for the restoring in others of God's character. We call this witnessing. So obedience could be defined as witnessing to others in character and deed the true character of God. With Christ in the heart, we do not even work on witnessing. We will be so filled with the love of God that it will naturally overflow into the lives of others. Your friend, Dave M Quote
benherndon Posted March 12, 2005 Posted March 12, 2005 Robert (and Gerry) speak to the two text I gave you----Ps 147 and Deut 5. Here are some more-----Ezra 9--"[they intermarried]and have mingled the holy race with the peoples around them." 4th commandment, "nor the alien within thy gates". Ex 33: "What else will distinguish me and your people from all other people on the face of the earth?" Lev 16: "Atonement is to be made once a year for all the sins of the Israelites." [no mention of atonement for the sins of the gentiles---for they did NOT have the Law!!! If you say they did I doubt your familiarity with the Bible.] Lev 19: "The native-born and teh aliens living among you must not do any of these detestable things, for all these things were done by the people who lived in the land before you, and the land became defiled." [can you see the distinction between the gentiles and the Jews. Those gentiles who lived with the Jews must obey the laws while they were there---it doesn't say they had to believe in their hearts---though we know some did.] Lev 20: "I am the Lord your God, who has set you apart from the nations." Deut 4: "And what other nation is so great as to have such righteous decrees and laws as this body of laws I setting befre you today/" (same chapter) "Amd the Lord directed me at that time to teach you the decrees and laws you are to follow in the land that you are crossing the Jordan to possess." [of the gentiles across the Jordan already had those laws from God why would he make such a firm statement for them when they crossed into the land? It is because the gentiles didn't have 'the Law'] [cont in Deut 4] "Has any other people heard the voice of God speaking out of fire, as you have...Has any god ever tried to take for himself one nation our of another nation?" [also]"This is the law Moses set before the Israelites. These are the stipulations, decrees, and laws Moses gave them WHEN they came out of Egypt and were in the valley near Beth Peor." Ps 135: "For the Lord has chosen Jacob to be his own, Israel to be his treasured possession." This is just a few--I've skipped others--and I;m only in Psalms---there are tens of others. I think you fellows are getting your information from another source. Can't you just read the 5 books of MOses alone and see that God chose Israel and He did NOT choose any other nation, group, race or whatever? Even Paul said the gentiles did not have 'the Law'. Where do you get the idea that God chose His ways for the gentiles of the world anywhere in the OT? Yes, in a place or two He dis predict that Christ would take the message to the gentiles---but it didn't happen until Christ came. Ben Quote
benherndon Posted March 12, 2005 Posted March 12, 2005 Quote: It is written: "One law shall be for the native-born and for the stranger who dwells among you." Ex 12:47 NKJ. "And if a stranger dwells with you, or whoever is among you throughout your generations, and would present an offering made by fire, a sweet aroma to the LORD, just as you do, so shall he do. One ordinance shall be for you of the assembly AND for the stranger who dwells with you, an ordinance forever throughout your generations; as you are, so shall the stranger be before the LORD. ONE LAW and ONE CUSTOM shall be for you and for the stranger who dwells with you." Num 15:14-16 NKJ Gerry >>>>Yes, indeed, while the gentile was within the camp or 'gate' they had to obey the Jewish laws. It did not apply NOR WAS THE LAW GIVEN OR DID IT APPLY to the Gentiles OUTSIDE THE CAMP!! Carefully read the Torah once again watching the context Ben. Quote
LifeHiscost Posted March 12, 2005 Posted March 12, 2005 Quote: Quote: "If you keep My commandments, you will abide in My love, just as I have kept My Father's commandments and abide in His love." John 15:10 NKJV How does one keep commandments the same, that are not the same? >>>>LHC, I think one way of thinking about all this is to realize that (1) Jesus was a Jew and born into and raised as a Jew. The Law of MOses was made for Jews and nobody else. Christ, being a Jew... Since this thread is specifically about the Law, is it then your conclusion that God (the Father) decided some of the 10C that were given were to be treated as for man as a whole, while others of the Ten were just for the Jews? Or did Jesus decide that, after He came to this earth to 'straighten things out', to identify which commandments were for the Jews only while others were to be understood as for all of mankind. [:"red"] "And Jesus said to them, The Sabbath was made on account and for the sake of man, not man for the Sabbath" [/] Mark 2:27 AMP It would be helpful if you gave your answer within a Scripture principle. And also, trying myself to understand where you're building your hypothesis from, of the destruction of the TenC, in which if the alternative behavior is accepted for each one of the Ten, it would seem to lead to total anarchy. And why did the disciples many years after the life of Jesus on this earth in the flesh, hold the commandments up as worthy to be emulated? How can one be guilty of breaking a Law that is no longer in existence? [:"red"] "If, however, you are fulfilling the royal law according to the Scripture, "YOU SHALL LOVE YOUR NEIGHBOR AS YOURSELF," you are doing well. For whoever keeps the whole law and yet stumbles in one point, he has become guilty of all. For He who said, "DO NOT COMMIT ADULTERY," also said, "DO NOT COMMIT MURDER." Now if you do not commit adultery, but do commit murder, you have become a transgressor of the law. So speak and so act as those who are to be judged by the law of liberty. " [/] James 2:8,10-12 NASB emph theirs By the way, does this verse mean anything to you? [:"red"] "A man is not a Jew if he is only one outwardly, nor is circumcision merely outward and physical. No, a man is a Jew if he is one inwardly; and circumcision is circumcision of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code. Such a man's praise is not from men, but from God. " [/] Rom 2:28 Lit Jesus up!! Quote Lift Jesus up!!
benherndon Posted March 12, 2005 Posted March 12, 2005 Quote: My point is that God is NO respecter of persons. What's good for the Jew is good for the Bens & Gerrys of the world! >>>May I gently disagree? In the time of the OT, God WAS a 'respecter' of persons. He CHOSE Israel and He did NOT CHOOSE those outside of the Israel race UNLESS they came into it by adoption or marriage and the males were circumcised, and other signs were kept and subscribed to----yes, there were converts--Ruth, for example. They became legally Jews and their offspring were considered Jews. --but IN GENERAL 'the Law' did not apply outside the boundaries of the land Israel occupied. If Jews dispersed to other lands they probably personally followed 'the Law' but the land they were dispersed to did not follow it. Many Jews were devout though they had dispersed into other national boundaries. But 'the Law' NEVER was given to or subscribed to by any other nation as far as we can tell from the Bible. God chose against, pardon me, the nonJewish peoples during the times of the Isrealites. Those that got in the way of the Jews were to have been totally destroyed. (It sounds cruel--my wife has a real hard time with that.) It was only after Christ died and was resurrected that the message of true salvation through Christ was open to the gentiles at large--- to all peoples of the world. Quote: Soooo, the Gentile who becomes a believer only obeys the law when he is with Jews, but once he is outside his gates, he the believing Gentile is free to live like a Gentile? Amazing bit of reasoning!!! >>>>The gentile who became a believer and dwelt with the people and who took upon himself or was forced to obey all the signs of being a Jew had to obey all 'the Law'. The Bible doesn't say anything about the gentile who left the camp of Israel to live again outside the camp. I'm not 'reasoning', Gerry, I am saying what the Bible says and not what any other source may have said. I did not invent or direct God to CHOOSE only the Israelites as His people. He did it on His own! Quote: But what did the Israelites do? They thought as you are thinking now, i.e. that the law was meant only for them. >>>Go back and find me a text or reference that in Jewish times 'the Law' was given to another nation. You are misinterpreting the text that you gave above this quote. When the gentile was inside the camp he had to obey 'the Law'. Nothing is said pro or con what he was to do 'outside' the camp. We are talking OT writings in re; this issue. I don't recall any comment from the OT about this. However, Paul in Rom 3 says the gentile did not have the law. Rom 2:14 says outright---the gentile did not have the law!--- because he worked for the Jew family didn't mean he was given the Law. He was simply required to observe 'the Law' of his employer or master WHILE he was in their employ or living with them. This has nothing to do with 'the Law' being given to the gentiles generally. The gentiles apparently knew by the nature of having human DNA that it was not good to lie, cheat, steal, kill, etc. Most animals know enough not to eat one another. Most humans know how to act whether or not they believe in 'the Law'. Atheists I know are very nice people and abide by decency impulses just because they are human. Gentiles who do not have 'the Law' also have social and communal laws that benefit the peace and tranquility of their community You don't have to believe in God to know from your humanness and from your brothers that you don't do certain 'bad' things. "The Law" was written for and given to the Israelites, the Jews. It was not written or given to any other race. If you say it does, I do not agree with your reading at all. Quote: You might also ask yourself if the veil may not be over your eyes? When Jesus preached, where did His message & authority come from? After His resurrection, how did He prove that His passion & resurrection was all planned? When He was tempted & confronted by the devil, where did He get his strength from? It was of course the Torah! That body of divine instructions you are desperately trying to get rid off! On the day of Pentecost when Peter got up to preach, did he preach from the KJV or NJB new testament? Would you believe he preached from one of the minor prophets? And the Psalms? See Acts 2. And when Peter preached again in Acts 3, where was his authority from? Of course, the Torah again! And when Stephen preached his powerful sermon, out of what did he preach from? From the NT KJV? NJB? NASB? Noooooooo! But of course from the OT that you say no longer applies! See Acts 6,7. When Philip shared the Good News with the Ethiopian, guess what book preached from? Why of course the OT that you say has been abolished! See Acts 8. When dissension arose among the disciples about the gospel that Paul & Barnabas were preaching, how did they settle the matter? Why of course by quoting from the OT! Read what James had to say in Acts 15. And when Paul gave his parting message when he was in Rome, what was his source material? Why of course, "both the Law of Moses & from the Prophets," & Isaiah. See Acts 28:23,25. Read how many times Paul refer to the OT in his magnum opus his letter to the Romans. Or how many times he quotes the OT in his letter to the Corinthians. Or to the rest of his letters!!! >>>I think I got the veil off my eyes when I had read the Bible alone for 2-3 yrs. The veil didn't just suddenly drop off---it came off in 'scales' gradually---not suddenlyl like Paul's experience. You must realize that those who used those texts in the NT, Jesus too, were using them to show that Jesus fulfilled them all. They were focused on Christ and His 'new Way', and His authority. They were not focused on 'the Law'. They were used to show the position of 'authority' the OT predicted would be that of Jesus, the Son of God. We should guard against distorting the meaning and intent of those texts. I use the OT but never with authority over what the NT says. The OT is still in all the Bibles I have. "Done away" and "Abolished" refers to 'the Law' having no authority over the Christian. Christ's Law, and His words are the authority in the Christian Era. That is what 2Cor 3 is saying in effect. 1 Tim 1 one says the law is for the nonbeliever, the radical breaker of 'the Law'----Christ's Law does NOT apply to the nonbeliever it seems to me. Do you have some problem with 'done away' and 'abolished' and 'cast out' and 'faded' and 'has no glory in comparison', etc? Those are NT Biblical words used against the continued authority of the Law of Moses, the OldCovenant/Testament. As I've mentioned previously, one widely accepted peer-reviewed translation give this alternate translation of 2Cor 3;14 "..nor is it revealed to them [as they read Moses]that this [old] covenant has been abolished by Christ." Why don't you speak to those words specifically---putting your 'spin' on them? They are not my words---they are virtually the same in all translations, too. Please read the New Testament through cover to cover in the NLT which you started a year or so ago. Stay with it and with it alone until you get the epiphany I believe you would enjoy. But just so long as you consider Moses' writings to be equally or more authoritative than Christ's writings and those of His chosen followers when He was here on earth, then, you are not likely to dispose of that veil, that veil of confusion. "Since this new covenant gives us such confidence, we can be very bold. We are not like Moses, who put a veil over his face SO the people would not see the glory fading away. But the people's minds were hardened, and even to this day whenever the old covenant is being read, a veil covers their minds SO they cannot understand the truth. And this veil can be removed only by BELIEVING in Christ. Yes, even today when they read Moses' writings, their hearts are covered with that veil, AND THEY DO NOT UNDERSTAND." 2Cor 3:12-15 (NLT) Ben Quote
Robert Posted March 12, 2005 Author Posted March 12, 2005 Quote: AS LONG AS Christ is in me, my new nature is in control. First of all it isn't your nature - rather it is the Holy Spirit's nature. You are not the Holy Spirit.... The Spirit dwells in your heart (which literally means mind). Therefore your mind is in harmony with the principle of God's law - love, but your flesh remains 100% sinful. Paul talks of this in Romans 7:22-23 For I joyfully concur with the law of God in the inner man, but I see a different law in the members of my body, waging war against the law of my mind, and making me a prisoner of the law of sin which is in my members The "inner man" refers to the converted person. This can be seen in 2 Corinthians 4:16: Therefore we do not lose heart, but though our outer man is decaying, yet our inner man is being renewed day by day. Notice that our "inner man" is being renewed day by day....That's the same idea found in 2 Cor 3:18 We...are being changed into his likeness from one degree of glory to another; for this comes from the Lord who is the Spirit. Nevertheless, the Bible is clear that, "all...fall short of the glory of God", that is, His selfless love. Quote
benherndon Posted March 12, 2005 Posted March 12, 2005 Its late so I will try to shorten my usually long replies. Re you first paragraph----I regard the entire Law of Moses as a single indivisble unit of law designed specifially for the Israelites under the times of their freedom from Egypt. The Law is a single unit which contained about 600 specific laws. As such if any of those laws were broken, then, the Law of Moses was broken. Sabbath observance was not reinforced by that comment of Jesus as so many Sabbatarians claim, IMO. What that says is that man and his needs 'trump' Sabbath. We were not made FOR the Sabbath. It was 'added'---see Gal 3. The cripple at the Pool had been ill 38 yrs. There was no emergency. Jesus healed him on the spot because his healing was far more important than the Sabbath law. "Total Anarchy!" you say. Have you not read, just for example, the 3rd and 4th chapters of Colossians? I am not 'destroying' the Ten Cs, LHC, I am saying Christ who was God also, came and showed a New Way to be saved compared to what was previously thought and was a 'failure' The OT says it failed and so does the NT. See Hebrews 7 and 8 specifically. A better system was needed and was given through Christ. The disciples were ALL Jews. It is specifically the gentile that is freed from the Law of MOses. Check out Acts 13 to 15. There is not vacuum from 'law' so to speak. WE have what is referred to as Christ's Law which is what He said when He was asked, What is the most important Law. Read about His description in the Gospels. He never mentioned, never even reinforced the Sabbath!! He went to the Synagogue BECAUSE where else would He find the Jews in great number? Paul, likewise. We Sabbatarians like to use James to counter Paul. But be careful with that. The Law, the Ten Commandments AND the entire Torah law of Moses is not usually referred to as the 'law of liberty that gives freedom' nor the 'perfect law'--nor is it referred to as the royal law. The Ten Commandments mentioned in James refers to the 'whole law' which is the Law of Moses. There are several texts in the Bible that Sabbatarians try hard to 'get around'. They are 2Cor 3, Gal 3, Rom 14 and Col 2. But they all indicate that the Law of Moses is not applicable to the gentile. You may have a hard time accepting this but if you will limit your authority guiding your beliefs to the Bible ALONE you may see what I am saying. Yes Rom 2:28 means a lot to me but not independently of the rest of Romans. This text deals with Jewish blood vs being accepted into the Abrahamic covenant. It has nothing to do with mandatory obedience to the Law of Moses--if that's your point. Read all the way through Romans. There's only one real problem for me in Romans and that is Rom 3:31---Do we then nullify the Law, etc. The answer is NO. The law is not nullified in that it is wiped out, destroyed---it's purpose is revealed if one continues to read the NT. Before the law there was 'sin' but if there was no law, sinning did not produce guilt which would have resulted philosophically in death. If, then, there was no guilt, then there was not punishment to be meted out. If there was guilt, however, Christ came to save us from that guilt by ransoming us and pronouncing believers 'propitiated', i.e, their guilt was removed by His actions 'reconciling' us back to the Father. This is called Grace for those who 'believe'. If it not were for 'the Law' which had been added, we would have not had any guilt that needed to be removed, so we wouldn't have needed a Saviour. The Law served its purpose even though it made sin worse that is was before 'the Law'.. Mankind cannot keep the Law even if he wants to. His nature will not let him. What will a man do, then? "What a wretched man I am! Who will rescue me from this body of death?" --read on!---the answer is Christ!! He does for us what we cannot do for ourselves. He pronounces us to be what we are not. He becomes our sin so we can become His righteousness. This is a Gift, LHC. Gifts are NOT earned!! We Christians have been released from the Law of Moses--from all of it because it is a single indivisible unit of law. Christ replaces it with His law. There is not excuse for anarchy! Its sort of silly to think of it that way IF one reads the NT one finds many chapters telling us how Jesus wants us to live and how His chosen writers of the rest of the NT tells us how to live in accordance with His instructions and the meaning of His death and resurrection in our behalf. We have been ransomed!!! A Ransom is a gift and gifts are never something earned! How, then shall we live. Read the NT and it tells us how to live. It does not mention anything about boiling a kid in its mother's milk and it does not say anything about a chosen mandatory day of worship like the Jews had---except for the "TODAY" of Heb 3 & 4. That means we worship God EVERY DAY without fail. Rom 14 says each man should make up His own mind. The important thing is to worship God! I know how hard this is for Sabbatarians to accept. It was for me. I wept when I was so relieved to hear Dr Ford say he still believed the Sabbath was the right day. But my continued study of the Bible alone slowly showed me the current way I believe. I am not against the Sabbath as a day of worship! Be careful about how you analyse my position on this. HOwver, as a doctor I worked nearly every Sabbath of my professional schooling and life. Not all my work on those days was emergency, like ox in the ditch! How can I insist that others doing essential work must NOT work on Sabbath. Doesn't your church like the service of electricity, telephone, firemen standing by and emergency personnel standing by in case of need. What ifyou have an auto accident on Sabbath---don'tyou want the wrecker to come tow your car off the road. Whatifyou run out of gas because you forget to refill on Friday? Wouldn't you like to have some filling station be open on Sabbath? And if you get old and your lady doesn't cook anymore, dont' you want to go out to eat on Sabbath lunch time? By His example and words He said man was more important than the Sabbath. Times have changed. There was no electrical system or any other of our modern systems in the sands of Sinai. We are not under those same circumstances of living. Jesus said He worked on the Sabbath and so did His Father! Jesus also said King David and his scalawags entered the Sanctuary and ate the holy bread. DAvid was not a Levite. He had not business going into the sanctuary---except his hunger and that of his fleeing associates were hungry. Their hunger was more important thant the Law of Moses!!! He didn't go through the cleansing ritual when He touched the sick and dead----He showed His regard for the situation rather than ritualistic obedience to 'the Law'. It's 1:30 a.m. and......good night! Ben Quote
Robert Posted March 12, 2005 Author Posted March 12, 2005 Ben, Let's keep this thing simple....Go to Galatians 3:23 "the Scripture [The Bible] declares that the whole world [i.e., "all men" - the human race] is a prisoner of sin, so that what was promised, being given through faith in Jesus Christ, might be given to those who believe. 23 Before faith came [that is, before we accepted Jesus through faith], we ["the whole world"][:"red"] were held prisoners by the law[:"black"], locked up until faith should be revealed. 24 So the law was put in charge until Christ that we might be justified by faith. 25 Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law." Ben, you sound like many of the Sunday keeping brethren. Many of them say that the law was made only for the Jews. They too apparently do not understand the law's function. The law was given to expose sin. "Through the law comes the knowledge of sin." So before you came to Christ, the law (especially the Ten Commandments) had total jurisdiction over you. Like Paul states in Romans 7:1, "The law is binding on a person while he is living." You see the law demands that you obey it, but if you do not then the law places you death row. When you die then the law is satisfied. The only problem is if you die from "the curse of the law" there will be no resurrection for you. What is the solution, to do away with the law? No, to fulfill the law. What does the Bible say concerning Christ's relationship to the law? Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law...I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. In order to save you from the curse, Christ was made your life substance while fully remaining Himself (i.e., God). Because of this blending of the Divine and the human, when Christ obeyed the law - you were made obedient. When He took the curse - you took the curse. When He died - YOU DIED! When He was resurrection - you were resurrected and taken to heaven. This is your glorified life I am speaking of....Your old life is still alive (and not so well) here on plant earth. My point is that Paul tells us that the law has authority over you only as long as you live! Well, did you die? At this moment you are probably thinking, "Rob, who do you think you are posting to, a ghost? Of course I am alive." Yes, but from where did you come? Not your mother, but further back....Right, Adam.... You see the Bible teaches that we all share his life (i.e., our corporate life). We can see this in the following verses: From one man he made every nation of men [Acts 17:26] For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive. [1 Corinthians 15:22] Christ, as God, took onto Himself the life we all share - the life of Adam. For thirty something years Christ lived a perfect life in our humanity. This meets the positive demands of the law: Obey and live! At the cross our life came to and end. Hence the law is satisfied. This meets the justice of God’s law! At the resurrection Christ took a glorified humanity to heaven and there He uses it to present us before God's Holy law. "In Him" we are complete.... As long as we cling to Him by faith, we have salvation full and complete. But if we say goodbye to faith we are saying hello to the law. At that point the law no longer sees us as dead, but alive. You are mistaken that the law has been abolished. Gerry on the other hand is mistaken that believers are "under the law"! Both of you guys need correcting....Yes I know you are doctors and I am just a lowly electronic technician, but that doesn't mean that you guys are necessarily right.... Rob Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted March 12, 2005 Moderators Posted March 12, 2005 Quote: Quote: My point is that God is NO respecter of persons. What's good for the Jew is good for the Bens & Gerrys of the world! >>>May I gently disagree? In the time of the OT, God WAS a 'respecter' of persons. He CHOSE Israel and He did NOT CHOOSE those outside of the Israel race UNLESS they came into it by adoption or marriage and the males were circumcised, and other signs were kept and subscribed to----yes, there were converts--Ruth, for example. They became legally Jews and their offspring were considered Jews. --but IN GENERAL 'the Law' did not apply outside the boundaries of the land Israel occupied. If Jews dispersed to other lands they probably personally followed 'the Law' but the land they were dispersed to did not follow it. [:"blue"]"Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one!" Dt. 6:4 NKJ. "After all, God is not the God of the Jews only, is he? Isn't he also the God of the Gentiles? Of course he is!" Rom 3:29 NLT [/] Quote: Many Jews were devout though they had dispersed into other national boundaries. But 'the Law' NEVER was given to or subscribed to by any other nation as far as we can tell from the Bible. [:"blue"]I don't know what Bible you are using, Ben, but mine is very plain about it. My Bible says that there is only ONE God, and this God is NOT only the God of the Jews but also the God of the Gentiles. If He is God of both Jews & Gentiles, He could not be having one law for Jews & another law for Gentiles. God IS righteous & just, remember? Did or do Gentiles that have not known the Torah have a law against murder? You bet. Do they have laws against adultery? You bet. Do they have laws respecting parents/ancestors? Do they have sacrificial laws? Of course they knew many of those laws, but the devil has successfully corrupted their knowledge of God. [:"red"]"Since what may be known about God is plain to them, because God has made it plain to them......For although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him, but their thinking became futile and their foolish hearts were darkened. Although they claimed to be wise, they became fools and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like mortal man and birds and animals and reptiles." Rom 1:16,18,21-23 NIV. [/] But God did find a man who responded to the divine call: Abraham. [/] Gerry Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted March 12, 2005 Moderators Posted March 12, 2005 Quote: Ben, Let's keep this thing simple....Go to Galatians 3:23 "the Scripture [The Bible] declares that the whole world [i.e., "all men" - the human race] is a prisoner of sin, so that what was promised, being given through faith in Jesus Christ, might be given to those who believe. 23 Before faith came [that is, before we accepted Jesus through faith], we ["the whole world"][:"red"] were held prisoners by <font size=4>the law[:"black"]<font size=2>, locked up until faith should be revealed. 24 So the law was put in charge until Christ that we might be justified by faith. 25 Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law." Ben, you sound like many of the Sunday keeping brethren. Many of them say that the law was made only for the Jews. They too apparently do not understand the law's function. The law was given to expose sin. "Through the law comes the knowledge of sin." So before you came to Christ, the law (especially the Ten Commandments) had total jurisdiction over you. Like Paul states in Romans 7:1, "The law is binding on a person while he is living." You see the law demands that you obey it, but if you do not then the law places you death row. When you die then the law is satisfied. The only problem is if you die from "the curse of the law" there will be no resurrection for you. What is the solution, to do away with the law? No, to fulfill the law. What does the Bible say concerning Christ's relationship to the law? Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law...I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them. [:"blue"]Ah, Robert your arguments can sometimes be so rational & beautiful! If only...... [/] Gerry Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted March 12, 2005 Moderators Posted March 12, 2005 Quote: Quote: Maybe we need a definition of sin. The essence of sin is self-love, period! If you are not loving your neighbor as you naturally love yourself, then you are sinning! [:"blue"]The law does not condemn self-love. In fact it commands one to love a neighbor as one loves one's own self. The essence of sin is NOT self-love. The essence of sin is living a life apart from God. Sin is a denial of one's creatureliness. Sin is a declaration by the creature that he/she is self-existent, independent from the Life-giver. [/] Gerry Quote
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