Moderators Gerr Posted July 11, 2012 Author Moderators Posted July 11, 2012 I raise the question because at least a couple of posters in another thread either doubt or outright reject the principle. Quote
Ron Amnsn Posted July 11, 2012 Posted July 11, 2012 There is a correlation in Scripture between years and days applied to prophetic situations. This correlation is sometimes referred to as a "day = year principle" (or "year-for-a-day principle") or simply the year-day principle. Every instance of the year-day principle in Scripture incorporates both a period of literal days and a period of literal years, and both the literal days and the literal years begin and end with an observable event. For instance the spies that Moses sent into the Promised Land left the camp, spent 40 days exploring the land, and returned to the camp. Because the Israelites accepted the bad report of the 10 spies, God prophesied that the Israelites would spend 40 years wandering in the wilderness, starting at the year when they refused to enter the promised land and ending with the year when they obediently entered the land. Both the days of exploring and the corresponding years of wandering had definite observable beginnings and ends. Although initially the 40 years were prophetic, they were fulfilled in literal years. The Adventist doctrine of 2300 days/years (pointing to 1844) breaks the Scriptural year-day principle by omitting the literal days completely. Instead of literal days with a definite event marking the beginning of the days and a definite event marking the end of the days, the Adventist doctrine uses so-called "prophetic days" for the 2300 "evening-mornings" with absolutely no events marking either the beginning or the end of a literal 2300-day period. The Adventist doctrine of the 2300 days/years also breaks the Scriptural year-day principle by lacking an observable event at the end of a literal 2300 years. Quote
Ron Amnsn Posted July 11, 2012 Posted July 11, 2012 GERRY CABALO well all of visions in the BOOK of DANIEL are base on this dgrimm60 The 490-year prophecy of Daniel is not based on the Scriptural year-day principle. The prophecy speaks of 70 "sevens". The word "sevens" has been translated into English as "weeks", which gives people the false impression that the prophetic time period was measured in days. The word translated as "weeks" meant "sevens" in the original language. Although it could refer to a seven-day week, it was also used to refer to the seven-year cycle of years that marked the land-Sabbath years when the land of Israel was to rest, without planting or harvesting. Jeremiah tells us that the 70 years of the Babylonian captivity was based on the number of land-Sabbaths that the Israelites had ignored. God's land would get 70 years of rest to make up for 70 missed land-Sabbaths. (It would have taken 490 years for the Israelites to violate 70 land-Sabbaths.) Seven "sevens" (seven-year land-Sabbath cycles) preceded the year of Jubilee. The seventy "sevens" of Daniel's prophecy comprised ten Jubilee cycles or 490 years. The 490-year prophecy of Daniel is laid out in "sevens" that literally refer to years. There are no literal days involved in the prophecy. Quote
JoeMo Posted July 11, 2012 Posted July 11, 2012 Gerry, Would I be one of the guys you were referring to in the post above? If so, I resemble that remark! For the record, I don't outright reject the day-year concept; but I do question it. Here's why. The 2 texts SDA's frequently refer to when "proving" the concept are: 33 Your children will be shepherds here for forty years, suffering for your unfaithfulness, until the last of your bodies lies in the wilderness. 34 For forty years —one year for each of the forty days you explored the land —you will suffer for your sins and know what it is like to have me against you.’ 35 I, the Lord, have spoken, and I will surely do these things to this whole wicked community, which has banded together against me. They will meet their end in this wilderness; here they will die. ” (Numbers 14:33-35) and “After you have finished this, lie down again, this time on your right side, and bear the sin of the people of Judah. I have assigned you 40 days, a day for each year. 7 Turn your face toward the siege of Jerusalem and with bared arm prophesy against her. 8 I will tie you up with ropes so that you cannot turn from one side to the other until you have finished the days of your siege." (Eze. 4:6-8) There may be others; but these are the ones I remember. In both cases: 1. The passages seem to refer to judgement rather than end-time prophecies. 2. God specifies right in the scripture that it is a day for a year. I see no place in Daniel or Revelation where the days are connected with judgement, or that God specifies that it is a day for each year. For consistency's sake, wouldn't He clarify the meaning of a day in Daniel and Revelation? Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted July 13, 2012 Author Moderators Posted July 13, 2012 And where in Scripture does it say that a prophetic day (=year) does it say that it must always have a literal day and must always have a literal observable beginning and ending? The 2300 days did have an observable beginning, and just because nobody saw anything literal in 1844 does not mean that there was no change in the sanctuary ministry of Christ. After all, it was talking about the heavenly sanctuary. Quote
Ron Amnsn Posted July 13, 2012 Posted July 13, 2012 And where in Scripture does it say that a prophetic day (=year) does it say that it must always have a literal day and must always have a literal observable beginning and ending? Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted July 13, 2012 Author Moderators Posted July 13, 2012 Yep, you're one of those I was referring to. Here are the reasons why I believe in the day=year principle as it applies to the prophecies of Daniel. 1. Internal evidence. a. The "vision is for the time of the end" Dan 8:17 b. The angel Gabriel repeated that thought when he said, "Behold I will known to you what shall be at the latter end of the indignation, for it refers to the appointed time of the end," 8:19. c. And Gabriel had to mean "years" when he said, "The vision of the evenings and the mornings that has been told is true, but seal up the vision, for it refers to many days from now," 8:26. Since 2300 days is not even long enough for 7 literal years, and since the vision had to do with the "time of the end", and since the part of the vision that had to do with the 2300 days was sealed, the statement - "for it refers to many days from now" - had to mean "many years from now." That "days" can mean "years" even in non-prophetic statements can be seen in such passages as these: aa. "Thus all the days that Adam lived were 930 years, and he died." Gen 5:5 bb. ‎ESV ‎‎Ge 5:8 Thus all the days of Seth were 912 years, and he died. This expression is repeated over and over in chapter 5. c. It is very clear to me that the vision of the 70 weeks are actually 70 weeks of years. How? Because 70 literal weeks from the giving of the decree to rebuild Jerusalem which marked its beginning, would not be long enough to reach the Messiah. So the 70 weeks has to be 70 weeks of years, and that is exactly how some translations render it. For example: 24 “God has ordered four hundred ninety years for your people and your holy city for these reasons: to stop people from turning against God; to put an end to sin; to take away evil; to bring in goodness that continues forever; to bring about the vision and prophecy; and to appoint a most holy place. 25 “Learn and understand these things. A command will come to rebuild Jerusalem. The time from this command until the appointed leader comes will be forty-nine years and four hundred thirty-four years. Jerusalem will be rebuilt with streets and a trench filled with water around it, but it will be built in times of trouble. 26 After the four hundred thirty-four years the appointed leader will be killed; he will have nothing. The Everyday Bible: New Century Version. 2005 (Da 9:24–26). Nashville, TN: Thomas Nelson, Inc. 24 “Seventy weeks of years are decreed concerning your people... The Revised Standard Version. 1971 (Da 9:24). Oak Harbor, WA: Logos Research Systems, Inc. Cheddar even acknowledges that the 70 wks may in fact be years. If this is so, then he also has to acknowledge that the 2300 days are actually years as well, since the 70 wks are actually part of the 2300 dys. 2 B cont'd. Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted July 13, 2012 Author Moderators Posted July 13, 2012 Quote: Scripture doesn't explicitly say that anywhere. But that's how the principal is actually used in Scripture. If you're into speculative prophetic interpretations, then you're free to go beyond what is shown in Scripture, but then you need to realize that you're dealing with speculation, not with Bible prophecy. Do you know of an observable ending to the literal 70 wks? To the literal 42 mos? Gerry, I think you mean that the 2300 years had an observable beginning (according to the SDA interpretation). Yes, that's what I meant. Thank you. Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted July 13, 2012 Author Moderators Posted July 13, 2012 I see no place in Daniel or Revelation where the days are connected with judgement, or that God specifies that it is a day for each year. For consistency's sake, wouldn't He clarify the meaning of a day in Daniel and Revelation? Notice that the Judgment scene in Dan 7:9-10, 26-27 occurs during the time of the blasphemous, persecuting, little horn, Dan 7:8, 21. And that this power overthrows God's sanctuary and its services in Dan 8. Someone raised the question - ‎ESV ‎‎Da 8:13 Then I heard a holy one speaking, and another holy one said to the one who spoke, “For how long is the vision concerning the regular burnt offering, the transgression that makes desolate, and the giving over of the sanctuary and host to be trampled underfoot?” And the answer was: ‎KJV 1900 ‎‎Da 8:14 And he said unto me, Unto two thousand and three hundred days; then shall the sanctuary be cleansed. Recall that in the typical service of the earthly sanctuary, the cleansing of the sanctuary took place once a year in the Day of Atonement. My understanding is that the Jews/Israelites consider Yom Kippur as a Day of Judgment. 2 b cont'd. Quote
Ron Amnsn Posted July 13, 2012 Posted July 13, 2012 Cheddar even acknowledges that the 70 wks may in fact be years. If this is so, then he also has to acknowledge that the 2300 days are actually years as well, since the 70 wks are actually part of the 2300 dys. I don't think that's something that needs to be "acknowledged". In the context, the "sevens" that are translated as "weeks" are primarily years, referring to the seven-year cycles that measured the time between land-Sabbaths. Where is the verse that says the 70 sevens is part of the 2300 evening-mornings? I remember as a teenager listening as the SDA evangelists interpreted the passage the way you do, but it always seemed to me that they were trying to make the text mean the opposite of what was actually written in the text. They wanted it to mean "part of" when the text says it is separate. I can't find it right now. Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted July 13, 2012 Author Moderators Posted July 13, 2012 Where is the verse that says the 70 sevens is part of the 2300 evening-mornings? I remember as a teenager listening as the SDA evangelists interpreted the passage the way you do, but it always seemed to me that they were trying to make the text mean the opposite of what was actually written in the text. They wanted it to mean "part of" when the text says it is separate. I can't find it right now. The last verse of ch 8 says: ESV Da 8:27 And I, Daniel, was overcome and lay sick for some days. Then I rose and went about the king’s business, but I was appalled by the vision and did not understand it. What part puzzled him? The ram, the goat, and the little horn were interpreted, but the 2300 days was not. In ch 9, Daniel realized from studying the prophecies of Jeremiah the time for the captivity to end was at hand. In answer to his prayer, Gabriel comes to him and says: ESV Da 9:21 while I was speaking in prayer, the man Gabriel, whom I had seen in the vision at the first, came to me in swift flight at the time of the evening sacrifice. 22 He made me understand, speaking with me and saying, “O Daniel, I have now come out to give you insight and understanding. 23 At the beginning of your pleas for mercy a word went out, and I have come to tell it to you, for you are greatly loved. Therefore consider the word and understand the vision. What vision? It had to be the vision of ch 8. And the part that was left unexplained was the part that had to do with the sanctuary and the 2300 days. Here is what the Pulpit Commentary says that connects the 70 wks to the 2300 days: Quote: There seems little evidence for this reading; against a few late manuscripts is the consensus of versions. “Determined” is also a word that occurs only here it is Aramaic, but not common even in that language. It means “to cut off.” It may thus refer to these weeks being “cut off” from time generally; hence “determined.” Spence, H. D. M. (2004). The Pulpit Commentary: Daniel (267). Bellingham, WA: Logos Bible Software. The only "time" that it could possibly be cut off is from a larger time period, i.e. the 2300 days. There are other ommentaries other than the SDABC & the Pulpit Commentary that understand the Heb chatak to mean "cut off". Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted July 13, 2012 Author Moderators Posted July 13, 2012 I don't think that's something that needs to be "acknowledged". In the context, the "sevens" that are translated as "weeks" are primarily years, referring to the seven-year cycles that measured the time between land-Sabbaths. I cited Cheddar because he rejects the day=year principle in apocalyptic prophecy, yet acknowledges that the 70 wks could possibly be understood as years which seems odd to me. Quote
cheddar Posted July 13, 2012 Posted July 13, 2012 I should have been more specific. I said the day for a year appears to work with the 70 weeks. I definitely see the 70 weeks a literal and part of the end-time. The seventy weeks are talking about the close of probation for spiritual Israel not ancient Israel and are the best evidence to date for the cleansing of the heavenly sanctuary. The opening declarations describe Jesus’ final work to a tee and it even says ‘to anoint the most holy’. This is why I think Jerusalem and a 3rd temple will be rebuilt to go along with the commandment to restore and rebuild Jerusalem. The anointed one who is ‘cut off’ in the last week I see as a parallel to the two witnesses or two anointed ones in Rev. who are killed and lie in the streets for 3 ½ days. God has always used two men as the leaders of his people so I think the two witnesses will be the leaders of the 144K. The ‘anointed one’ will be the higher of the two similar to how Moses would have been over Aaron. How long does Jesus actually need to cleanse the heavenly sanctuary? Does he need 150+ years or about a year and a half? A year and a half sounds like plenty of time to me. The day of atonement occurred on the 10th day of the 7th month which is a cryptic reference to the 70 weeks. Jesus said to Peter that forgiveness will last for seventy times seven which is another reference to his final work which once completed will end forgiveness for the whole world. Quote
Ron Amnsn Posted July 13, 2012 Posted July 13, 2012 The only "time" that it could possibly be cut off is from a larger time period, i.e. the 2300 days. There are other commentaries other than the SDABC & the Pulpit Commentary that understand the Heb chatak to mean "cut off". I'm still missing something. In which verse of Daniel 9 do you find the word chatak that means "cut off"? Quote
Ron Amnsn Posted July 13, 2012 Posted July 13, 2012 Do you know of an observable ending to the literal 70 wks? To the literal 42 mos? I don't believe that either the 70 sevens nor the 42 months are instances of the Biblical year-day principle. They are literal prophecies pointing to a literal 490-year period and to a literal 42-month period, respectively. SDA's point to the stoning of Stephen as the end of the 490-year period, but there is no real evidence of that. SDA's also teach that the prophecy was a period of probation for the Jews, again without any real evidence. The prophecy of Daniel 9:24 speaks of the work of Messiah, so I would say that the 490 years ended during the year in which Messiah said, "It is finished." Quote
JoeMo Posted July 13, 2012 Posted July 13, 2012 None of us will ever win this debate. To me, it is kind of a moot point anyways. "28 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When her branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is near: 29 So ye in like manner, when ye shall see these things come to pass, know that it is nigh, even at the doors." (Mark 13:28-29) Whether a day = a year or a day = a day, can we all agree that, given the signs of the times, Jesus is coming soon? Quote
Moderators Gerr Posted July 13, 2012 Author Moderators Posted July 13, 2012 I'm still missing something. In which verse of Daniel 9 do you find the word chatak that means "cut off"? In 9:24 it says, ESV Da 9:24 “Seventy weeks are decreed about your people ... KJV Da 9:24 Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people "Decreed" or "determined" means "cut off". Quote
Johnnboy Posted July 14, 2012 Posted July 14, 2012 Let's not be too hasty in closing the conversation on this terribly important prophecy. Remember the statement: “We are thankful that we have a sure word of prophecy, so that none of us need be deceived.” To Be Like Jesus, 116. The true understanding of these prophecies has to do with us being kept from deception and without the true understanding being deceived by the devil. Very simply, the 2300 prophetic days or 2300 years gives us the blueprint for the literal fulfillments of this prophecy. The beginning point of the 2300 years or the 2300 literal days is the “GOING FORTH” of a “commandment to restore and build Jerusalem”. The first 70 “weeks” of years or in the literal fulfillment—70 weeks of days, is probationary time allotted to the people of God both anciently and in the literal fulfillment—presently. Quote
Gibs Posted July 14, 2012 Posted July 14, 2012 Since it all has been precisely fulfilled it is plumb easy to see the 70 wks ended AD 33. These 70 was the time allotted to the Jews to finish the transgression and for them to make an end of sin. Jesus died precisely in the middle yr of that 70'th week and when that week was ended the gospel commission went to the Gentiles. The times of the Jews had ended and the times of the Gentiles began and now the times of the Gentiles is about fulfilled and the following is about to happen. Lu 21:24 And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled. Lu 21:25 And there shall be signs in the sun, and in the moon, and in the stars; and upon the earth distress of nations, with perplexity; the sea and the waves roaring; Lu 21:26 [color:#FF0000]Men's hearts failing them for fear, and for looking after those things which are coming on the earth: for the powers of heaven shall be shaken. Lu 21:27 And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory. 1Jo 4:4 ¶ Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world. Quote A Freeman In Jesus Christ
Johnnboy Posted July 14, 2012 Posted July 14, 2012 Quote: Scripture doesn't explicitly say that anywhere. But that's how the principal is actually used in Scripture. If you're into speculative prophetic interpretations, then you're free to go beyond what is shown in Scripture, but then you need to realize that you're dealing with speculation, not with Bible prophecy. Do you know of an observable ending to the literal 70 wks? To the literal 42 mos? Originally Posted By: Ron Gerry, I think you mean that the 2300 years had an observable beginning (according to the SDA interpretation). Yes, that's what I meant. Thank you. Yes, there is a very observable beginning and ending of the literal 70-week time period of the 2300 literal days. This is also true of the 42 months. The 2300 prophetic day prophecy had to begin as the angel instructed Daniel--"the going forth of a commandment to restore and build Jerusalem" with the 70-weeks of years of probationary time for God's ancient people. The 2300 prophetic days must reach to the time of the cleansing of the sanctuary as stated in Daniel 8:14. The sanctuary was symbolically cleansed each year on the Day of Atonement, therefore, the 2300 prophetic days (years) must reach to a Day of Atonement. There are not 2300 days in the yearly cycle of ceremonies in the old sanctuary, thus the prophecy must be referring to the fulfillment of the cleansing of the sanctuary, or the antitype of that typical service. Quote
Johnnboy Posted July 14, 2012 Posted July 14, 2012 WERE THE 3 COMMANDMENTS TO RESTORE AND BUILD JERUSALEM PROPHETIC? Originally, in prophetic history, there were three commandments to “restore and build Jerusalem”. The first, by Cyrus, the second by Darius, and the third and most complete, was in 457 B.C.E. by the King Artaxerxes. Could these three commandments in prophetic history actually be prophetic of three fulfillments of the 2300-day prophecy, each beginning with a commandment to “restore and build Jerusalem”? Or is it just a coincidence? Why does the Spirit of Prophecy draw attention to these three commandments that “went forth”? the last one being the most complete. THE FIRST: “In a written proclamation published “throughout all his kingdom, Cyrus made known his desire to provide for the return of the Hebrews and for the rebuilding of their temple”. (Ezra 1:1-4 quoted) PK 558. THE SECOND: “A score or more of years passed by, when a second decree, quite as favorable as the first, was issued by Darius Hystaspes, the monarch then ruling.” PK 598. THE THIRD: “About seventy years after the return of the first company of exiles under Zerubbabel and Joshua, Artaxerxes Longimanus came to the throne of Medo-Persia....The decree of Artaxerxes Longimanus for the restoring and building of Jerusalem, the third issued since the close of the seventy years' captivity, is remarkable for its expressions regarding the God of heaven, for its recognition of the attainments of Ezra, and for the liberality of the grants made to the remnant people of God (Ezra 7:11,12,15,20).” PK 607, 610. Why does the Spirit of Prophecy give specific comments on these three distinct and separate commandments to “restore and build Jerusalem”? To repeat, could it be prophetic of three different fulfillment’s of the 2300 days, each beginning with a “going forth of a commandment to restore and build Jerusalem”? Quote
JoeMo Posted July 14, 2012 Posted July 14, 2012 Hypothetically speaking, given the current world situation, couldn't Jerusalem be destroyed again in a Middle-East war? Couldn't another decree by the United Nations call for the restoration of Jerusalem as an "international city of peace"? Couldn't a literal 2,300 days begin then? Concerning Johnnboy's post, the orders by Cyrus and Darius call for the restoration of the Temple, not the restoration of Jerusalem. "13 Then I heard a holy one speaking, and another holy one said to him, “How long will it take for the vision to be fulfilled —the vision concerning the daily sacrifice, the rebellion that causes desolation, the surrender of the sanctuary and the trampling underfoot of the Lord’s people?” 14 He said to me, “It will take 2,300 evenings and mornings; then the sanctuary will be reconsecrated.” (Dan. 8:13-14) I can't tell whether these verses refer to the restoration of Jerusalem or the Temple. So which one of these orders begins the 2,300 days? They seem to be separated by 90 or so years. Or is it 1,1150 days? Could "evenings and mornings" refer to the evening and morning sacrifices (2 per day) as mandated by the Mosaic law? If not, why are they not called "days" in the original Hebrew? 26 “The vision of the evenings and mornings that has been given you is true, but seal up the vision, for it concerns the distant future.” (Dan: 8:26) How could the 2,300 days be referring to an event that likely occurred during Daniel's life (or shortly thereafter) if an angel of God said they were for the distant future? Why do I have so many questions? I'm so confused! Quote
Lysimachus Posted July 14, 2012 Posted July 14, 2012 Yes, I have done extensive research on the day-for-year principle, and I can assure you all that Ron Amnsn is 100% wrong in his interpretations of the 70 weeks not being based on the day-year principle. He will need some tutoring, and humbling in the dust concerning this matter. Sound and exegetical studies have put this case to rest, a long time ago. But first, on the day-year principle in relation to the 2300 days: the 70 Jewish scribes that wrote the Septuagint unanimously recognized the "evening-morning" to be a "day", thus they qualified it by saying "evening-morning days". Meaning, "full days". Thirdly, the visible evidence was in the reactions of Christians world-wide. It could be visibly scene the disappointment. The power that attended the preachers around the world, and the confessions it brought could be visibly seen everywhere. There was nothing like it. It was the biggest revival and spiritual awakening Christians the world over had ever experience. Fourthly, please read the following excerpt from some of my research: Futurists, like Preterists apply the time period of 2300 evenings and mornings in Daniel 8:14 to literal days, or “1150 evening and morning sacrifices” (which ever feels more convenient—as long as it undermines Historicism). A pity to think that both Preterists and Futurists alike adopt this detrimental interpretation of Daniel 8 which originated from the pagan philosopher, Porphyry of Tyre (A.D. 234—c. .305), whose foremost aim was to terminate the advancement of Christianity. In order to try and prove that Daniel was not a prophet, it was Porphyry, according to Jerome and Bishop Thomas Newman, who originated the view that Antiochus was the Little Horn of Daniel 8. Through his pagan attack, He proposed that Daniel was merely a historian, and that he wrote the book of Daniel after the events of Antiochus. Both Futurists and Preterists also deny that the 2300 day period covers more than just the desecrating power of the Little Horn. A close analysis of the Hebrew in Daniel 8 reveals that the 2300 day period encompasses not just the desecrating power of the Little Horn, but also the Ram (Persia), the Goat (Greece), the 4 notable horns (four divisions of Alexander’s empire), AND the Little Horn! With this in mind, it matters not how one wishes to try and make Antiochus fit the Little Horn. The 2300 day period [known as the “mareh”] encompasses the TOTALITY of the vision [chazon] in Daniel 8. This automatically forces the 2300 days to be years, and these 2300 years end in the year 1844. Also keep in mind that the 70 Jewish scribes who translated the Hebrew Bible into Greek, making the Septuagint, unanimously qualified the “evening-mornings” by using the Greek word “days”—--the term “evening-mornings” was used by Daniel because he was using artistic “sanctuary language” concerning the lamps that burned “always”, or “daily” in the sanctuary (See for example: Exodus 27:20, 21; Leviticus 24:2,3). The Hebrew word for “evening” is EREB, and for “morning”, BOQER. In other words “ereb-boqer”. Genesis 1:5, 8, 13, 19, 23, 31, all testify that an “evening” (ereb) and a “morning” (boqer) = a day. Dispensationalists have tried to cut this argument down by saying that “evening-morning” represents “evening and morning sacrifices or burnt offerings”, and therefore, since there was a sacrifice or burnt offering in the evening and in the morning, that means we must cut the 2300 in half to 1150 days. Then they try to fit 1150 days into Antiochus IV Epiphanies’ desecration of the Jewish temple. The problem is, according to Maccabees, Antiochus desecrated the temple for exactly 3 years to the day, or 1095 days. Therefore, Antiochus (along with a HOST of other reasons) does not fulfill this prophecy. It’s 55 days off. And finally, ALL temple sacrifices and burnt offerings were NEVER offered from “evening and morning”, but rather “MORNING AND EVENING” (see 1 Chron 16:40; 2 Chron 2:4; 13:11; 31:3; 2 Kings 16:15; and Ezra 3:3) In that order! The fact that Daniel used “evenings and mornings” in Daniel 8:14 is significant, and lends credence to the fact that Daniel meant full days, as a day is from evening to morning, not morning to evening according to Genesis 1. And since 2300 literal days = 6.4 years, and Antiochus only desecrated the temple for 3 years, we have no choice but to apply the 2300 evening-mornings to years, and since the “70 weeks” of Daniel 9:24 are “cut off” from the 2300 years of 8:14, that means the 2300 years end in 1844 if we begin in 457 B.C. I've worked with the math hundreds of times, and it is VERY precise! Not to mention that in Daniel 8, the context demands that the 2300 year period stretch to the “time of the end” [8:17,19] 70 weeks = 70 Sevens? Baloney! The “simple” Biblical appeal to this “day-for-year” principle is found in Ezekiel 4:6 and Numbers 14:34, and then not to mention that Daniel employs it in Daniel 9:24-27. Historicists believe that consistency demands that if we apply the 70 weeks to 490 years, and 1 week = 7 days, then we must be consistent with the 1260 days as well. The phrase “weeks of years” is an understood concept, although the phrase “weeks of years” does not exist in Daniel 9:24. It is just “shabuam”, meaning “weeks”. In order to get around this, Futurists say this word means “sevens”, not “weeks” to get “off the hook” of having to employ the day-for-year principle to the 70 weeks (because if they did acknowledge that the day-for-year principle is applicable to the 70 weeks, in order to be consistent, they would have to employ it also with the 1260 days/42 months/time, times, half a time of Daniel 7 and Revelation 11, 12 and 13!). But scholars have refuted this, and have proven that “shabuam” can only mean “weeks”, not “sevens”. Now of course, there is no doubt that the word “week” itself does mean 7, but it is a word being employed to mean “7 days”. But if they really want to squeeze blood out of this turnip, we could get just as technical and say that we prefer to use “months of years” in Revelation 13. Or even go so far as to say that “month” = 30. (30 x 42 = 1260). We believe that in prophetic language, especially where symbolism is employed, the day-for-year principle must be sacredly recognized and guarded. This is ABSOLUTELY essential if we are gong to come to correct interpretations of eschatology and avoid theological shipwreck. We base this principle on Ezekiel 4:6, Numbers 14:34, and at least 80 other Biblical day-for-year parallels found in the sacred writings. To name a few prophetic time periods, we dogmatically recognize the 42 months of Revelation 13 as “months of years”, the 2300 evening-mornings of Daniel 8 as “days of years”, the 70 weeks of Daniel 9 as “weeks of years”, the 10 days of persecution on Smyrna in Revelation 10 as “days of years”, and the 3 ½ days of Revelation 11 as “days of years”. We believe the prophetic events that transpired meet these specified time periods with exact precision, and are not “spiritualized” away. We wholeheartedly submit that Dispensationalism’s refusal to adopt the day-for-year principle in their eschatological reckoning lies at the heart in spelling out their faulty conclusions of end-time Bible prophecy. Pastor Stephen Bohr insighfully states concerning the 70 weeks prophecy: Reason #6 What do conservative evangelical Christians do with the prophecy of the 70 weeks? Don’t they have to employ the year/day principle to convert the weeks to years? The answer is that they attempt to get off the hook by saying that the expression “70 weeks” really means “seventy sevens” or even “70 weeks of years”. In this way they get rid of the year/day principle. This they must do because if they employed the year/day principle for the seventy weeks, they would also have to employ it for the other prophetic time periods in order to be consistent!! Let us look at a few facts about the word translated “week” here in Daniel 9. Is it true that the Hebrew word shabuwa should be translated “sevens” or “weeks of years”? This word is used a total of 19 times in the Hebrew Scriptures and in every single instance it refers to a literal week of seven literal days (Genesis 29:27; 29:28; Exodus 34:22; Leviticus 12:5; Numbers 28:26; Deuteronomy 16:9 (used twice); 16:10; 16:16; II Chronicles 8:13; Jeremiah 5:24; Daniel 9:24; 9:25(used twice); 9:26; 9:27 (used twice); Daniel 10:2; Daniel 10:3). Evangelicals frequently use Daniel 10:2-3 as an argument for translating the word shabuwa as “weeks of years”. They point out that in these verses the word “weeks” is qualified by the word “days”, in other words, “weeks of days”. They then imply that if these are weeks (with the qualifier “days”), then the other weeks (without the qualifier “days”) must mean “weeks of years”. For example, the New International Version translates the word week with “seven” or “sevens” in Daniel 9:24-27 but then translates the very same word as “weeks” in Daniel 10:2,3. The only problem with such an explanation is that it ignores the meaning of the Hebrew idiom,”weeks of days”. When the word “week” in Hebrew is qualified by the word “days”, it simply means “full weeks”. Notice the following examples: In Genesis 29:14; Numbers 11:20-21; Judges 19:2 the Hebrew literally reads, “month of days”. Is there a month that does not consist of days? Furthermore, in Genesis 41:1; Leviticus 25:29; II Samuel 13:23; 14:28 the Hebrew literally reads “years of days” but the translators have recognized that this means “full years”. The fundamental reason why futurist and preterist scholars refuse to translate shabuwa in Daniel 9 as “weeks” is because they would then have to admit, in order to be consistent, that the year/day principle must be applied to other prophetic time periods as well. Furthermore, if they applied the year/day principle to the 70 weeks, they would have to apply it to the 2300 days (of which the 70 weeks constitute the first part) and this would force them to admit that prophecy was fulfilled in 1844!! This would then make them Seventh-day Adventists!! Have mercy!! Incidentally, the Septuagint translates the Hebrew shabuwa with the Greek word hebdomas. This word is consistently translated “week”. ~ Source: Twenty Reasons to Apply the Year/Day Principle - by Pastor Stephen Bohr To someone like Ron, this study may not be "deep" and "advanced" enough for this conclusion to convince him. But special studies have been prepared just for him on this matter, which I would hope that he would be willing to take the time and study: - The Day-Year Principle on Daniel 9:24-27 (PDF) – by Frank W. Hardy, Ph.D. (Very exegetical, and very in-depth—to this day has not been refuted) - "Seventy Sevens" or "Seventy Weeks"? (PDF) - by Frank W. Hardy, Ph.D. - Eighty Year-Day Parallels (PDF) - by Frank W. Hardy, Ph.D. Other day-year links: http://www.historicism.org/TopicsYearDay.html In the end, what Ron is doing is undermining our pillars, and sympathizing with Jesuit Futurism, and in so doing, he is REJECTING the Spirit of Prophecy. This is APOSTATE! Quote ~Lysimachus (Marcos S.) Author of article, Vindicating the Year-Day Principle of Prophetic Interpretation (see attachment for article) Currently writing a book, Vindicating the Historical School of Prophetic Interpretation Founder of the largest and fastest SDA Apologetics Group on Facebook, Seventh-Day Adventism - Defending the Pillars of the Faith Writer and apologetics contributor at Adventist Defense League Vindicating the Year-Day Principle of Prophetic Interpretation.pdf
Members phkrause Posted July 14, 2012 Members Posted July 14, 2012 Excellent post Lysimachus. Steven Bohr has to be one of the smartest Bible people I know. As I was reading your post of his comments, I could just hear his high pitched voice. LOL Quote phkrause When the righteous are in authority, the people rejoice; But when a wicked man rules, the people groan. Proverbs 29;2
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