Prophetic Day=Year Principle - Biblical?

[Samie]

Samie,

Scripture states,

"That which hath been is now; and that which is to be hath already been; and God requireth that which is past." Eccl. 3:15.

Johnnboy,

You can't believe that the virgin Mary had already previously given birth to Jesus before she gave birth to Him in Bethlehem, can you?

This explains why your use of Eccl 3:15 to justify multiple fulfillment of prophecy is flawed.

[Johnnboy]

Samie,

The Scripture verse in Ecclesiastes 3:15-

"That which hath been is now; and that which is to be hath already been; and God requireth that which is past," means just exactly what it states, unless Scripture specifically states that the event prophesied occurs only once, as it does with the Messiah appearing on earth to save man.

"...but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared..." Hebrews 9:26

"All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all good works." 2 Timothy 3:16,17.

This verse means that all scripture is inspired--not only some of the scripture. So we can believe what it is telling us without a flaw.