Samie Posted December 31, 2011 Posted December 31, 2011 There is only one verse in Scriptures that explicitly say when Christ rose from the grave. All other resurrection verses only tell of the coming of some of the Lord's followers to the sepulcher only to find an already empty tomb. That empty tomb was proof He has indeed risen. But when? Only Mark 16:9 says when: on 'proi prote sabbatou' The Greek phrase 'proi prote sabbatou' is better rendered 'early morning of the chief sabbath' rather than the generally accepted 'early morning of the first day of the week'. It is worth noting that the Greek makes no mention of 'day'(hemera) nor of 'week'(hebdomas). In fact, in the Septuagint, 'sabbatou' (genitive, singular) always refer to 'sabbath' (a single day) and NEVER to 'week' (7 days). But the Sunday-keeping Bible translators seemed to have put in a tint of doctrinal bias in their rendering of the phrase in order to give a semblance of Scriptural authority to their Sunday-keeping. But why 'chief sabbath'? Because in that paschal week, other than the weekly sabbath, there also occurred a ceremonial sabbath. Between the weekly sabbath which the Lord calls 'my sabbath' and a ceremonial sabbath referred to by the Lord as 'your sabbath' the chief is undoubtedly the weekly sabbath, Saturday. That ceremonial sabbath was the sabbath that had passed when the women followers of the Lord bought spices (Mk 16:1) which they prepared before they rested the weekly sabbath (Lk 23:56). Since preparation of the spices and ointments was before the weekly sabbath, it was done Friday. Also, since the ceremonial sabbath preceded the preparation of spices, having only bought the spices after this ceremonial sabbath had passed, it was therefore Thursday. This ceremonial sabbath occurred after preparation of Passover the day before, which was, of course, Wednesday. It was preparation of Passover when Christ was crucified (John 19:14ff), and therefore Wednesday. 3 days and 3 nights later, as the Lord Himself specified (Mt 12:40), He rose from the grave 'proi prote sabbatou' = 'early morning of the chief sabbath'. daytime Wednesday = day 1; ... nighttime Wednesday = night 1 daytime Thursday = day 2; ... nighttime Thursday = night 2 daytime Friday = day 3; ... nighttime Friday (which covers the whole night until before sunrise Saturday) = night 3 In contrast, the Roman Catholic doctrine of Friday crucifixion and early Sunday morning resurrection can only account for 2 days and 2 nights. Many honest Sunday-keepers who keep Sunday believing it was His resurrection day will become Sabbath-keepers once they come to know the Lord rose from the grave Saturday.
Q.E.D. Posted December 31, 2011 Posted December 31, 2011 In connection to your Wednesday crucifiction theory but I would be interested in your answer to the question below. Who or what is it the Beast of Revelation 13? Satanic Verses-Salman Rushdie.
Q.E.D. Posted December 31, 2011 Posted December 31, 2011 "17 And he said unto them, What manner of communications are these that ye have one to another, as ye walk, and are sad? 18 And the one of them, whose name was Cleopas, answering said unto him, Art thou only a stranger in Jerusalem, and hast not known the things which are come to pass there in these days? 19 And he said unto them, What things? And they said unto him, Concerning Jesus of Nazareth, which was a prophet mighty in deed and word before God and all the people: 20 And how the chief priests and our rulers delivered him to be condemned to death, and have crucified him. 21 But we trusted that it had been he which should have redeemed Israel: and beside all this, to day is the third day since these things were done. 22 Yea, and certain women also of our company made us astonished, which were early at the sepulchre; 23 And when they found not his body, they came, saying, that they had also seen a vision of angels, which said that he was alive. 24 And certain of them which were with us went to the sepulchre, and found it even so as the women had said: but him they saw not."(Luke 24:17-24) Satanic Verses-Salman Rushdie.
Samie Posted December 31, 2011 Author Posted December 31, 2011 No offense meant, but how about starting a new thread on the Beast of Rev 13? Just a suggestion.
Samie Posted December 31, 2011 Author Posted December 31, 2011 Hi Q.E.D; You quoted Luke 24:17-24 and highlighted the following phrase in v21: Quote: to day is the third day since these things were done The Friday crucifixion and Sunday morning resurrection RC doctrine, although it looks like it fits the 'third day' specs, yet, it cannot fit the 3 days and 3 nights specification of the Lord. On the other hand, letting Scriptures interpret itself line upon line, precept upon precept, here a little and there a little, will reveal that the Wednesday death and early Saturday morning resurrection snugly fits all the FOUR (4) different phrases that describe the period of time from Crucifixion to Resurrection. 1. 3 days and 3 nights (Matt 12:40) 2. in three days (John 2:19-21) 3. after three days (Matt. 27:63; Mk. 8:31) and 4. third day (Matt. 16:21; 17:23; 20:19; 27:64; Mk. 9:31; 10:34; Lk. 9:22; 13:32; 18:33; 24:7, 21, 46) Only the Wednesday crucifixion and early Saturday morning resurrection easily fits all these phrases. 1. 3 days and 3 nights. From Wednesday daytime to Saturday before sunrise is 3 days and 3 nights. On the other hand, from Friday daytime to Sunday before sunrise is only 2 days and 2 nights: Daytime Friday = day 1 Nighttime Friday = night 1 Daytime Saturday = day 2 Nighttime Saturday (which extends up to before sunrise Sunday) = night 2 2. in three days. The Bible defines a day as having a night and a day (Gen 1:5,8,13,19,23,31). Therefore, 'in three days' is actually in 3 nights and 3 days. Again the Friday crucifixion and Sunday resurrection cannot fit this because it only has 2 days and 2 nights. 3. after three days. After 3 days from Wednesday = Saturday. Proof: After 1 day from Wednesday = Thursday After 2 days from Wednesday = Friday Therefore: After 3 days from Wednesday = Saturday. On the other hand, After 1 day from Friday = Saturday. After 2 days from Friday = Sunday. Therefore, the Friday crucifixion and Sunday resurrection cannot fit because Sunday is “after 2 days” from Friday, whereas the Bible specifies “after 3 days”. 4. third day. The Bible tells us that the phrase 'third day' is likewise equivalent to 'after three days': 2 Chronicles 10:5 And he said unto them, Come again unto me after three days. And the people departed 2 Chronicles 10:12 So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day, as the king bade, saying, Come again to me on the third day. Although the Friday crucifixion and early Sunday morning resurrection could fit the “third day” specification in the way we count, yet it cannot fit the Biblical account which equates the phrase “third day” into the phrase “after three days”. It is only the Wednesday crucifixion and early Saturday morning resurrection that snugly fits into the FOUR (4) Biblical specifications.
Q.E.D. Posted December 31, 2011 Posted December 31, 2011 Hi Q.E.D; You quoted Luke 24:17-24 and highlighted the following phrase in v21: Originally Posted By: Q.E.D. to day is the third day since these things were done 4. third day. The Bible tells us that the phrase 'third day' is likewise equivalent to 'after three days': 2 Chronicles 10:5 And he said unto them, Come again unto me after three days. And the people departed 2 Chronicles 10:12 So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day, as the king bade, saying, Come again to me on the third day. I accept the phrase "on the third day", as you have quoted in 2 Chronicles 10, to be a "narrowing specification"of the phrase "after 3 days" and not visa versa. Methinks I will take the Bible as it reads. On the third day means exactly that, "on the third day". . . Q.E.D. Satanic Verses-Salman Rushdie.
Samie Posted December 31, 2011 Author Posted December 31, 2011 I accept the phrase "on the third day", as you have quoted in 2 Chronicles 10, to be a "narrowing specification"of the phrase "after 3 days" and not visa versa. Methinks I will take the Bible as it reads. On the third day means exactly that, "on the third day". . . Q.E.D. Are you saying, "on the third day" = "after 3 days", but not "after 3 days = on the third day"? Just wondering. But I share with you your principle of taking the Bible as it reads. This is why I believe Matt 12:40 meant 3 days and 3 nights not 2 days and 2 nights.
Gibs Posted December 31, 2011 Posted December 31, 2011 There is much to consider on this question, but if one wants to really dig you can know the truth. I will post a couple verses here to show you one consideration. Mt 28:1 In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre. The above verse don't ring right as Sabbath begins at sundown Fri. and ends at sundown Saturday. So if dawn is coming it is Sunday because Sunday began at sundown. I would look at translation error there. The next verse sets it fair and square. Joh 20:1 The first day of the week cometh Mary Magdalene early, when it was yet dark, unto the sepulchre, and seeth the stone taken away from the sepulchre. Notice "while it was still dark" as was in Mt 28:1 but John says "first day of the week". So it appears to me He rested in the Tomb as His Custom was to keep Sabbath and resurrected then afterward on Sunday. Now as to what day of the week Jesus died there is something to consider here and each must work it out for themselves. The Jews were going by the Babylonian method of determining the feast days of seeing the first sliver of the moon in Jerusalem. At certain times the first sliver of it can not be seen as it is still day and is setting very low in the western sky. They kept passover 1 to 2 days later then because of that than Jesus and the disciples did as on those occasions the new moon has to be calculated which they did. There were two passovers among them. It also brings up the problem of what year Jesus died, AD 30 or AD 31 as it was right at the end of the year. When you get it right in your mind the prophecy did not fail to have it spot on. 1Jo 4:4 ¶ Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world. A Freeman In Jesus Christ
Samie Posted December 31, 2011 Author Posted December 31, 2011 There is much to consider on this question, but if one wants to really dig you can know the truth. I will post a couple verses here to show you one consideration. Mt 28:1 In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre. The above verse don't ring right as Sabbath begins at sundown Fri. and ends at sundown Saturday. So if dawn is coming it is Sunday because Sunday began at sundown. I would look at translation error there. The next verse sets it fair and square. Joh 20:1 The first day of the week cometh Mary Magdalene early, when it was yet dark, unto the sepulchre, and seeth the stone taken away from the sepulchre. Notice "while it was still dark" as was in Mt 28:1 but John says "first day of the week". So it appears to me He rested in the Tomb as His Custom was to keep Sabbath and resurrected then afterward on Sunday.
Windsor Posted December 31, 2011 Posted December 31, 2011 Those who claim astronomical data supports one year or day versus another do not understand how much guess work is involved with the so-called data. Remember Adventists Online?
Samie Posted December 31, 2011 Author Posted December 31, 2011 Those who claim astronomical data supports one year or day versus another do not understand how much guess work is involved with the so-called data. I am sorry if that is what you have experienced with others. You can examine my short article, if you wish.
Q.E.D. Posted December 31, 2011 Posted December 31, 2011 I accept the phrase "on the third day", as you have quoted in 2 Chronicles 10, to be a "narrowing specification"of the phrase "after 3 days" and not visa versa. Methinks I will take the Bible as it reads. On the third day means exactly that, "on the third day". . . Q.E.D. Satanic Verses-Salman Rushdie.
Gustave Posted December 31, 2011 Posted December 31, 2011 Those who claim astronomical data supports one year or day versus another do not understand how much guess work is involved with the so-called data. There is no 'guess work' in determining the conjunction of the Moon by math... ...There is no 'guess work' in reconciling the phases of the moon to the Julian / Gregorian calendar. ...Between the years 28 - 35 C.E. ...There is zero.
BobRyan Posted December 31, 2011 Posted December 31, 2011 Luke 24 says that Sunday "is the third day" since the trial and crucifixion of Christ. That only works with a Friday crucifixion and a week-day-one resurrection. And on the day of the crucifixion they return to rest - for it was the preparation day - for the Sabbath commandment's observance. in Christ, Bob John 8:32 - The Truth will make you free“The righteousness of Christ will not cover one cherished sin." COL 316.
doug yowell Posted December 31, 2011 Posted December 31, 2011 Mt 28:1 In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week, came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre. The above verse don't ring right as Sabbath begins at sundown Fri. and ends at sundown Saturday. So if dawn is coming it is Sunday because Sunday began at sundown. I would look at translation error there. The next verse sets it fair and square. Joh 20:1 The first day of the week cometh Mary Magdalene early, when it was yet dark, unto the sepulchre, and seeth the stone taken away from the sepulchre. Notice "while it was still dark" as was in Mt 28:1 but John says "first day of the week". So it appears to me He rested in the Tomb as His Custom was to keep Sabbath and resurrected then afterward on Sunday. Apparently the NT writers and the women enbalmers had a little difficulty in recognizing that the first day of the week was really the seventh day of the week and that while it was improper to embalm a body on a festival Sabbath it was perfectly OK to do it on a weekly Sabbath.I'm gonna have to go with the RCC on this chronological point.
doug yowell Posted December 31, 2011 Posted December 31, 2011 quote]I admire your candidness and sincerity. But I would like to just contribute that the dead needs no rest. Rest is for the living, not for the deceased. Perhaps you should read the inspired words of Job 3:11-19 Psalm 16:9,10 Rev. 14:13 again. Or maybe Gibs should have used the word sleep instead. Sleeping, resting, what's the difference?
Samie Posted December 31, 2011 Author Posted December 31, 2011 Originally Posted By: Q.E.D. I accept the phrase "on the third day", as you have quoted in 2 Chronicles 10, to be a "narrowing specification"of the phrase "after 3 days" and not visa versa. Methinks I will take the Bible as it reads. On the third day means exactly that, "on the third day". . . Q.E.D. Originally Posted By: Samie Are you saying, "on the third day" = "after 3 days", but not "after 3 days = on the third day"? Just wondering. "On the third day" = "On the third day" 2 Chronicles 10:12 So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day, as the king bade, saying, Come again to me on the third day. So did the king say come "after 3 days" or did the king say "on the third day"? Methinks I read in 2 Chronicles 10:12 that the king said "on the third day". "Water = liquid" or "liquid = water" may or may not be equal. Q.E.D. The king did say "after 3 days" and "on the third day" for the same period of time. 2 Chronicles 10:5 And he said unto them, Come again unto me after three days. And the people departed. 2 Chronicles 10:12 So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day, as the king bade, saying, Come again to me on the third day. You have a point in water=liquid where liquid may or may not = water, because one is a specific type of the other which have other specific types. But I just think when Scriptures itself say that "after 3 days" was fulfilled "on the third day", then the converse is always true.
Samie Posted December 31, 2011 Author Posted December 31, 2011 Originally Posted By: Windsor Those who claim astronomical data supports one year or day versus another do not understand how much guess work is involved with the so-called data. There is no 'guess work' in determining the conjunction of the Moon by math... ...There is no 'guess work' in reconciling the phases of the moon to the Julian / Gregorian calendar. ...Between the years 28 - 35 C.E. ...There is zero. I share with you the same observation, too. Determining the lunar phases is no guess work, forward or backward into time. Thanks.
Samie Posted December 31, 2011 Author Posted December 31, 2011 Originally Posted By: Samie I admire your candidness and sincerity. But I would like to just contribute that the dead needs no rest. Rest is for the living, not for the deceased. Perhaps you should read the inspired words of Job 3:11-19 Psalm 16:9,10 Rev. 14:13 again. Or maybe Gibs should have used the word sleep instead. Sleeping, resting, what's the difference? I have no argument against what Scriptures say. The only concern I have is with the reasoning that Christ cannot resurrect Saturday because it was His custom to rest on the weekly Sabbath. If this is the case, then it is giving the RCC more reason for Sunday-keeping because Christ likewise 'rested' portion of Sunday.
doug yowell Posted January 1, 2012 Posted January 1, 2012 I have no argument against what Scriptures say. The only concern I have is with the reasoning that Christ cannot resurrect Saturday because it was His custom to rest on the weekly Sabbath. I understand. Perhaps it would be better not to use that response to defend your point. Remember too, just before Jesus died He said "It is finished". This is what He noted after He finished His creation work and used that as a reason to rest. Why would His perfect work of atonement/perfect substitution not allow for a harmonizing rest before beginning His work of intercessor?
doug yowell Posted January 1, 2012 Posted January 1, 2012 If this is the case, then it is giving the RCC more reason for Sunday-keeping because Christ likewise 'rested' portion of Sunday. The problem with the use of this reasoning should be obvious.Even though there are some SDA's who believe this, the Sabbath commandment does not allow for the keeping of a portion of the day and a desecration of the rest of the day.That would defeat the whole idea of Sabbath/Sunday sacredness. Jesus rested in the tomb for the entire duration, and then some, of the Sabbath.
Q.E.D. Posted January 1, 2012 Posted January 1, 2012 The king did say "after 3 days" and "on the third day" for the same period of time. 2 Chronicles 10:5 And he said unto them, Come again unto me after three days. And the people departed. 2 Chronicles 10:12 So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day, as the king bade, saying, Come again to me on the third day. But I just think when Scriptures itself say that "after 3 days" was fulfilled "on the third day", then the converse is always true. Why would one think that? Q.E.D. Satanic Verses-Salman Rushdie.
Samie Posted January 1, 2012 Author Posted January 1, 2012 Originally Posted By: Samie I have no argument against what Scriptures say. The only concern I have is with the reasoning that Christ cannot resurrect Saturday because it was His custom to rest on the weekly Sabbath. I understand. Perhaps it would be better not to use that response to defend your point. Remember too, just before Jesus died He said "It is finished". This is what He noted after He finished His creation work and used that as a reason to rest. Why would His perfect work of atonement/perfect substitution not allow for a harmonizing rest before beginning His work of intercessor? Although popular view has it that Christ rested in the tomb, I do not view it that way. Why? Because death-rest accomplishes nothing for others. But the death of Christ accomplished what He could not accomplish while alive. Only His death can pay the penalty for sin. The death He tasted for every man is separation from His Father. And it took Him to sweat out drops of blood in Gethsemane at the thought of being separated from Him. The death He experienced is no rest. The horrible scenario He was about to face of being separated from His Father with Whom He was for eternal ages before so engulfed His soul with anguish that He cried out, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani! This is why He did not die Friday as the RCC taught and made the world believe. Instead He died Wednesday, as Passover Lamb, right on preparation of Passover of the Jews. 3 days and 3 nights later, as He Himself specified, on early Saturday morning before sunrise, His Father called Him from the grave. The separation was over. He rises with humanity made spiritually alive as His body, separated for a holy purpose right on the holy day God had made for man who is now holy in His sight by what His own Son had done. In creation God made the Sabbath holy; in redemption, God made man holy.
Samie Posted January 1, 2012 Author Posted January 1, 2012 Originally Posted By: Samie The king did say "after 3 days" and "on the third day" for the same period of time. 2 Chronicles 10:5 And he said unto them, Come again unto me after three days. And the people departed. 2 Chronicles 10:12 So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day, as the king bade, saying, Come again to me on the third day. But I just think when Scriptures itself say that "after 3 days" was fulfilled "on the third day", then the converse is always true. Why would one think that? Q.E.D. Because the Bible says so.
Q.E.D. Posted January 1, 2012 Posted January 1, 2012 The king did say "after 3 days" and "on the third day" for the same period of time. 2 Chronicles 10:5 And he said unto them, Come again unto me after three days. And the people departed. 2 Chronicles 10:12 So Jeroboam and all the people came to Rehoboam on the third day, as the king bade, saying, Come again to me on the third day. But I just think when Scriptures itself say that "after 3 days" was fulfilled "on the third day", then the converse is always true. Satanic Verses-Salman Rushdie.
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