The Sabbath: Is it only a shadow???

[True-believer]

Hello everyone,

I've been speaking to my unbeliever stepdad, Alex, and also my believer mum, Vicki.

Remember, my stepdad does not believe at all.

Also remember, my mum is a Christian in a Pentecostal Church.

This is what has been happening to the whole three of us:

My stepdad has been studying the Bible to try and disproof the Sabbath--and he has openly admitted that he has studied the entire Bible and cannot disproof the seventh-day Sabbath.

My mum on the other hand is not willing to step down from her beliefs that the Sabbath is nailed to the Cross, and it is only a shadow of things to come, and we rest in Christ 24hrs/7days now instead.

Well, lets see, is the Sabbath Day only a shadow?

In Colossians 2:16-17 says:

Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of a holy day, or of a new moon, or of the sabbath days: Which are a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.

The same verse is found in:

Hosea 2:11

I will also cause all her mirth to cease, her feast days, her new moons, and her sabbaths, and all her solemn feasts.

Now is this talking about the seventh-day Sabbath or the ceremonial sabbaths contained in ordinances?

Colossians 2:14

Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to His Cross.

Ephesians 2:15

Having abolished in His flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in Himself twain one new man, so making peace.

So is it the Ten Commandments thats been done away?

NO!!!

It is the enmity in His flesh that is involved in the Ten Commandments, and not the commandments themself.

Galatians 6:15

For in Christ Jesus neither circumcision availeth any thing, nor uncircumcision, but a new creature.

So, we keep The Ten Commandments because its God's eternal law--for He is eternal.

The enmity in His flesh is no longer there.

The ministration of sin and death is no longer there.

Romans 8 says there is no more condemnation to those who are in Christ Jesus.

Jesus says, if you LOVE ME, keep My commandments.

The two great commandments about loving God and loving our neibor in Matthew 12:38-40,

in the end it states:

These two laws HANG on the law and the prophets.

[Nan]

Luke, I am glad you have been able to witness to your Mum and stepfather, and will pray you

have the wisdom and grace to continue to do so.

[guibox]

Luke, the 'Sabbaths' are indeed talking about the seventh day sabbaths.

However, the issue here wasn't about their validity but the methodology of how they were being kept. If you read the entire Colossians you will see that the pagan leaders were expecting these festivals and days to be kept in a strict, ascetic and pagan manner. They were judging the people on HOW these things were to be kept, not in keeping them.

As a matter of fact, Paul nowhere says 'Let no man judge you in NOT keeping...' it was a given that they were already observing it.

The key is in vs 14. What was nailed to the cross was not ANY law here. The 'handwriting of ordinances' is called the 'cheirographon'. This was a written legal document in the old days. In this context it is 'the written record of our sins' it is NOT the ceremonial law or the 10 commandments.

By nailing this 'record of sins' to the cross, Christ gave absolute forgiveness and power over the enemy (vs 15). Paul's point to the Colossians is that these rituals and pagan practices cannot bring you closer to Christ. They are shadows. Forgiveness is only found in Christ nailing our sins to the cross with him.

This is why the Colossian 'judgers' can no longer judge these people.

I recommend you check out Bacchiocchi's fuller explanation of this passage. This and the newsletters before and after are the best refutation of anti-Sabbath arguments. Bacchiocchi definitely needs to be commended for exposing the poor hermeneutic that so many adopt to try and dispute the Sabbath.

http://www.biblicalperspectives.com/endtimeissues/eti_77.html

[phkrause]

I don't believe that its talking about the Sabbath of the 10 commandments Luke. The Sabbath of the 4th Commandment is a memorial of an event that happened at creation. The sabbath or sabbaths that it seems to be alluding to here is the 7 ceremonial sabbaths of the Jewish festivals. Look back in Leviticus 23 starting with verse 4 till the end of the chapter. I hope this helps.

pk

[True-believer]

Thankyou Pkrause and guibox,

I'll check out the link and also Leviticus 23 from verse 4.

But Guibox, I can see very clearly through the Scriptures that it is NOT speaking of the 4th Commandment because God's law has to be separate from Moses' law.

What do the others on the forum has to say about this?

[guibox]

Luke, the issue here is not the validity of the Mosaic law to the 10 commandments. The logical order of 'days' and 'new moons' and Sabbath is a logical progression also used in Galatians to show the monthly, weekly and daily cycle.

The issue is not the Mosaic law or the 10 commandment laws (though the Sabbath is mentioned) but the practices surrounding them.

Please go to the Bacchiocchi link and scroll down through it to see how this passage should be interpreted according to the context of the rest of the chapter.

[Neil D]

But Guibox, I can see very clearly through the Scriptures that it is NOT speaking of the 4th Commandment because God's law has to be separate from Moses' law.

What do the others on the forum has to say about this?

What are you trying to point out? That the Sabbath is NOT done away with?

Ok, Ask a simple question.....Is Jesus the current model for all mankind?

[answer is yes. I Peter 2:25This is the kind of life you've been invited into, the kind of life Christ lived. He suffered everything that came his way so you would know that it could be done, and also know how to do it, step-by-step.]

If Jesus is the model for all mankind, then did Jesus go to church on Sunday?

[answer-No. His custom was to go to church on Sabbath. Luke 4:16]

If Jesus is the current model for all mankind, then why did He never go to church on Sunday? [answer: The day was never changed. Therefore, there remains a sabbath rest for the people of God.]

If the argument is that Jesus as modeling as a Jew, then all the promises of the bible are for the Jews only...and not one is for gentiles....but that is NOT what the bible says...

[John317]

Paul's point to the Colossians is that these rituals and pagan practices cannot bring you closer to Christ. They are shadows. Forgiveness is only found in Christ nailing our sins to the cross with him...

Col. 2: 17 says that the things mentioned in verse 16 "are a shadow of things to come." This excludes the weekly Sabbath, for it was not a shadow but rather a reminder of God's creation of the world. It points back in time. The shadows pointed forward in time to what Christ would do.

This understanding of the verse is not, as some claim, simply "a poor hermeneutic that so many adopt to try and dispute the Sabbath." Jamieson, Fausset & Brown's Commentary, a well-known commentary by Sunday keepers, also says that the "sabbaths" of v. 16 refer to the ceremonial sabbaths, the day of Atonement and feast of tabernacles, etc. This commentary reads, "The weekly sabbath rests on a more permanent foundation, having been instituted in Paradise to commemorate the completion of creation in six days. Lev. 23: 38 expressly distinguished 'the sabbath of the Lord' from the other sabbaths."

What was the handwriting of the ordinances [Gk, dogma]-- or the written code with its regulations-- that was against them and which was nailed to Christ's cross? (Compare Eph. 2: 15.) The answer is given in Deut. 31: 26. This book of the law, i.e., the Mosaic law, was put "in the side of the ark" "that it may be there for a witness against you." The Ten Commandments were put inside the ark, under the mercy seat. They were kept separate and distinct for a very good reason. One was eternal and the other temporary.

The Ten Commandments of God are not "decrees" or "ordinances." These are temporary. God's commandments, on the other hand, are everlasting as He is. (See use of the same Greek word at Luke 2: 1; Acts 16: 4 and Acts 17: 7.)

If Col. 2: 14 refers to the Ten Commandments, verse 16 would mean that people are not judged by whether they keep God's moral law. We know they are not judged by whether they keep the ceremonial laws or the other ritualistic laws. But Ecc. 12: 13, 14 and James 2: 12 teach that the standard in the judgment is God's moral law. Rev. 11: 19 gives us a picture of the ark of the covenant in the Most Holy Place in the heavenly sanctuary at the time of the judgment prior to the coming of Christ, and the law of God is in that ark. They read the same today as they read when the law was first written by the finger of God. They weren't nailed to the cross but are the standard of the Christian's life today.

[guibox]

What was the handwriting of the ordinances [Gk, dogma]-- or the written code with its regulations-- that was against them and which was nailed to Christ's cross? (Compare Eph. 2: 15.) The answer is given in Deut. 31: 26. This book of the law, i.e., the Mosaic law, was put "in the side of the ark"

This is not true for many reasons:

1) The word law' nomos' is not mentioned anywhere in Colossians 2

2) What was nailed to the cross was the 'cheirographon' which was not the law be it ceremonial or moral but the 'written record of sins'.

3) To make vs 14 speak of the law is to make it a textual island that makes no sense in the context of vs 13 that speaks of Christ's forgiveness and vs 15 that shows the results of these sins being nailed to the cross (therefore silencing the powers and principalities over you)

4) The issue in Ephesians 2 is indeed talking about the ceremonial laws, but this cannot be read into Colossians. They are speaking of two different things

5) The issue in Colossians 2 is ascetic pagan rituals focused around Jewish/Christian celebrations. (debasement of the body to lift the spirit closer to God, fasting and abastaining from foods, and worship of the elements) not the validity of the law.

6) The 'these are a shadow of things to come' are the regulations over these celebrations not the celebrations themselves. The 'these' is the focal point of the regulations spoken of both before and after vs 17. The context supports that it was 'these' regulations and not the celebrations that were shadows. These practices were used to obtain closeness to God by their ritualistic aspect. Paul was saying that they do not bring forgiveness, they do not bring you closer to God. Only Christ and His loving act of forgiveness does this.

Therefore, because Christ is the reality of linking God to man, don't let these judges tell you HOW you are supposed to be celebrating, and not to do it to bring yourselves closer to God.

The context of the entire passage does NOT support any focus on the ceremonial or moral law vs 14-17 would make no sense in the context of Colossians 2. The focus is the forgiveness of Christ. This is not done by nailing any law to the cross but the canceling out of our sins, our debt, our cheirographon.

[messenger]

John that is exactly how I understand it, never heard what Guibox said that is not the correct translation for sure! Most scholars agree with us on this, the book of the covenant was also referred to as the book of ordinances as well.

[messenger]

Luke I will be praying for you, your mom and dad. Here are some excellent Bible Study links on the Sabbath and Ten Commandments from Amazing Facts. Get them to look at these links, they cover about every question one may have on the topic.

Links: www.SabbathTruth.com

www.TenCommandmentFacts.com

Blessing in Christ, messenger

[John317]

Originally Posted By: John317

What was the handwriting of the ordinances [Gk, dogma]-- or the written code with its regulations-- that was against them and which was nailed to Christ's cross? (Compare Eph. 2: 15.) The answer is given in Deut. 31: 26. This book of the law, i.e., the Mosaic law, was put "in the side of the ark"

What was nailed to the cross was the 'cheirographon' which was not the law be it ceremonial or moral but the 'written record of sins'.

It was "the bond that stood against us Col. 2: 14" [cheirographon], (Greek-English Lexicon, Bauer). It refers to the Mosaic law: "metaphorically applied in Col. 2: 14 to the Mosaic law, which shows men to be chargeable with offences for which they must pay the penalty" (Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, p. 668). Robert Young's Literal-- "the handwriting in the ordinances."

"the bond [cheirographon] against us by its decrees" [dogma], (Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, p. 154). The same word refers to "the rules and requirements of the laws of Moses, 3 Macc. i. 3." (Thayer's, p. 154).

"the bond that stood against us with its requirements Col. 2: 14" [dogma] (Greek-English Lexicon, Bauer, p. 200).

Quote:

3) To make vs 14 speak of the law is to make it a textual island that makes no sense in the context of vs 13 that speaks of Christ's forgiveness and vs 15 that shows the results of these sins being nailed to the cross (therefore silencing the powers and principalities over you)

V. 13 says that God has pardoned all of our sins.

V. 14 does not simply repeat that God pardoned the list of our sins. It says, rather, that God "has blotted out the entire record of the laws we broke and the penalties against us, that condemned us. He completely disposed of the record by nailing it to the cross." (The New Translation: Letters of the New Testament).

Christ did not simply nail a list of sins to the cross. It refers to laws broken and these laws God did away with, yet they are not the moral laws but the ceremonial laws only, those which were mere shadows pointing forward to the redemptive work of Christ.

[guibox]

John, I'm sorry but your sources are incorrect.

'cheirographon' NEVER refers to the 'law'. Most scholars agree.

This is the ONLY place this word is used and in outside literature is always used to denote a 'debt' or a 'written record of debt'.

Quote:

cheirographon:

1) a handwriting, what one has written by his own hand

2) a note of hand or writing in which one acknowledges that money has either been deposited with him or lent to him by another, to be returned at the appointed time STrongs Greek Lexicon

Quote:

Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; - Colossians 2:14

The atonement of the blessed Redeemer was a full and entire blotting out of the sins of the believer. Need we say anything upon the vast importance of this truth? - Octavius Winslow -

Quote:

"Through the Lord Jesus and His work on the cross (cf. notes Ephesians 1:20; 21; 22; 23; Ephesians 3:10), God canceled the believer’s debt, defeating Satan and his fallen angels. - John MacArthur

Quote:

The Greek word for "handwriting" is cheirographon, used in common Greek for a document written in one's own hand as legal proof of indebtedness. Some modern translations call it a bond of indebtedness.

Christ wiped out a note of debt. What kind of debts did Christ cancel? He canceled our spiritual debts, our sins, our transgressions of God's law, and this is what the note of debt refers to. In his crucifixion, Christ symbolically nailed our note of debt to his cross because his sacrifice paid our debts. 1 Peter 2:24 uses a similar analogy.

The Greek word for "requirements" (KJV "ordinances") is dogmasin, a form of the word dogma, which is used only five times in the New Testament. Dogma can refer to decrees of Caesar (Luke 2:1, Acts 17:7) or apostolic decrees (Acts 16:4). In other writings of that era, dogma could also refer to the commandments of God (3 Maccabees 1:3, Josephus, Against Apion 1, 42) or the commandments of Jesus (Barnabas 1:6, Ignatius to the Magnesians 13:1).

Commentators generally agree that dogma in Colossians 2:14 refers to God's laws. That makes the most sense in the context, because our spiritual debts have come from breaking God's laws. However, some commentators have erred in saying that God's laws have been against us and were nailed to the cross.

The meaning becomes more clear if we notice that cheirographon is singular and dogmasin is plural. It is the cheirographon, the note of debt, that "was [singular] against us, which was [singular] contrary to us. And He has taken it [singular] out of the way, having nailed it [singular] to the cross." The last part of verse 14 is about the handwriting, not the requirements.

God's laws are not against us. It is the note of debt, our sin, that has been against us. The validity of the laws is not in question here; the fact that we incur a debt if we fail to keep the requirements implies that Paul is refering to laws that are valid.

Michael Morrison - Worldwide Church of God

Quote:

In the context of Colossians 2:13-14 we can clearly and plainly see that it was the written documentor bond (debt) which was blotted out. This debt consisted of decrees (ordinances) against us. Eachtime we committed sin a decree (ordinance) was written down and recorded. This is what theMessiah blotted out and nailed to his tree. - Erich Matthew Janzen

Quote:

What Paul is saying is that, by His death, Christ has justified us—brought us into alignment with His Law—and wiped out the note of guilt or debt that we owed as a result of our sins. Before repentance, our lives had been governed by the standards and values of this present, evil world—the "decrees, laws and ordinances" of the society in which we lived. After repentance and acceptance of Christ, we embark on a new way of life and live by God's standards and values. Consequently, God wipes out the debt we acquired as a result of our sins and imputes righteousness to us.

Also notice that the phrase "handwriting of requirements" restates the phrase immediately before it. "Having wiped out the handwriting of requirements that was against us" parallels "having forgiven you all trespasses." Thus, Paul could not be referring to the law itself but rather to the record of our transgression of that law—sin!

http://bibletools.org/index.cfm/fuseaction/Topical.show/RTD/CGG/ID/1750/Cheirographon.htm

The 'law' was not against us. Our sins were. Though the basis of the sin was the law, the sins were what were nailed to the cross. By this very act of forgiveness, Christ made the power of the 'principalities' null and void. No longer can Satan hold our sins over us. Christ forgave them. Verse 15 makes no sense in conjuction with the law. It is out of context and does not jive with verse 14.

Forgiveness is the basis of Colossians 2, not the law.

We can keep arguing till we're blue in the face about this but the facts do not change.

The law...ANY law..is not the issue in Colossians.

[John317]

Originally Posted By: John317

What was the handwriting of the ordinances [Gk, dogma]-- or the written code with its regulations-- that was against them and which was nailed to Christ's cross? (Compare Eph. 2: 15.) The answer is given in Deut. 31: 26. This book of the law, i.e., the Mosaic law, was put "in the side of the ark"

This is not true for many reasons:

1) The word law' nomos' is not mentioned anywhere in Colossians 2

But the word, dogma, for "code," "decree," "ordinance," "requirement," "command," is used in Col. 2: 14. Those are all synonyms for law. If the law of Moses is not a code or command, what is it?

An Ordinance--

ordinance

noun

1 a piece of legislation enacted by a municipal authority : a city ordinance banned smoking in nearly all types of restaurants.

2 an authoritative order; a decree.

3 a prescribed religious rite : Talmudic ordinances.

All of the standard Greek-English Lexicons say that at Col. 2: 14 dogma refers to the law of Moses. These were quoted and documented in a previous post.

NIV--

13When you were dead in your sins and in the uncircumcision of your sinful nature, God made you alive with Christ. He forgave us all our sins, 14having canceled the written code, with its regulations, that was against us and that stood opposed to us; he took it away, nailing it to the cross. 15And having disarmed the powers and authorities, he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them by the cross.

16Therefore do not let anyone judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a religious festival, a New Moon celebration or a Sabbath day. 17These are a shadow of the things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ.

[messenger]

Amen John, you are for sure correct on this, no doubt at all!

[John317]

Mathew Henry on Col. 2: 14, regarding "the handwriting of ordinances":

He has obtained for us a legal discharge from the hand-writing of ordinances, which was against us (v. 14), which may be understood, 1. Of that obligation to punishment in which consists the guilt of sin. The curse of the law is the hand-writing against us, like the hand-writing on Belshazzar’s wall. Cursed is every one who continues not in every thing. This was a hand-writing which was against us, and contrary to us; for it threatened our eternal ruin. This was removed when he redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us, Gal. 3:13. He cancelled the obligation for all who repent and believe. "Upon me be the curse, my father.’’ He vacated and disannulled the judgment which was against us. When he was nailed to the cross, the curse was as it were nailed to the cross. And our indwelling corruption is crucified with Christ, and by virtue of his cross. When we remember the dying of the Lord Jesus, and see him nailed to the cross, we should see the hand-writing against us taken out of the way. Or rather, 2. It must be understood of the ceremonial law, the hand-writing of ordinances, the ceremonial institutions or the law of commandments contained in ordinances (Eph. 2:15), which was a yoke to the Jews and a partition-wall to the Gentiles. The Lord Jesus took it out of the way, nailed it to his cross; that is, disannulled the obligation of it, that all might see and be satisfied that it was no more binding. When the substance came, the shadows fled away. It is abolished (2 Co. 3:13), and that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away, Heb. 8:13. The expressions are in allusion to the ancient methods of cancelling a bond, either by crossing the writing or striking it through with a nail.

[True-believer]

Thankyou Guibox and John317,

I'll look into it all.

But I have to agree with Guibox when he says Jesus Christ has cancelled our debts, our sins upon the Cross.

We are now washed clean and free from the power of sin and death by the blood of Christ.

Romans 8 says, There is therefore now no condemnation for those who are in Christ, who do not walk according to the law but according to the Spirit.

--Meaning, the law is spiritual, so we need to be in the Spirit if we want to follow God and obey His commandments, because we can not do it on our own.

God gave us the Holy Spirit to help us and to guide us into all truth.

Thankyou John317, you also had some very helpful insights which I'll look into.

You both could be right...

As long as it lines up with the Word of God, but remember...

Please do not lose the focus of Jesus in these differences.

In John, Jesus says, "Those who want to worship Me, must worship Me in spirit and truth." --And not in disputes and arguments, lets just accept what people have to say, and study it for ourselves.

God bless you all.

[John317]

Amen John, you are for sure correct on this, no doubt at all!

One simply has to question the wisdom of concluding that linguistic authorities such as standard Greek-English lexicons are to be rejected for the opinions of people like Michael Morrison, Erich Matthew Janzen.

Actually, much that guibox posted shows that Col. 2: 14 is referring to laws--

Quote:

The Greek word for "requirements" (KJV "ordinances") is dogmasin, a form of the word dogma, which is used only five times in the New Testament. Dogma can refer to decrees of Caesar (Luke 2:1, Acts 17:7) or apostolic decrees (Acts 16:4). In other writings of that era, dogma could also refer to the commandments of God (3 Maccabees 1:3, Josephus, Against Apion 1, 42) or the commandments of Jesus (Barnabas 1:6, Ignatius to the Magnesians 13:1).

Commentators generally agree that dogma in Colossians 2:14 refers to God's laws. That makes the most sense in the context, because our spiritual debts have come from breaking God's laws.

Yes, they refer to the laws that God gave through Moses, which were the ceremonial laws, not the Ten Commandments.

Referring to the laws is quite different than referring to the disobedience to the laws.

[John317]

Thankyou Guibox and John317,

I'll look into it all.

But I have to agree with Guibox when he says Jesus Christ has cancelled our debts, our sins upon the Cross.

We are now washed clean and free from the power of sin and death by the blood of Christ.

Romans 8 says, There is therefore now no condemnation for those who are in Christ, who do not walk according to the law but according to the Spirit.

OK, Luke. God bless you in your study.

Yes, I agree that Colossians is saying that God cancelled our debts and our sins. We're all in agreement on that point. That's the great news.

[guibox]

Believe what you will, John

I know from my study that 'cheirographon' never refers to the law. The context doesn't support the ceremonial law or the moral law to be nailed to the cross.

The forgiveness offered in vs 13 and the principalities not having power over us in vs 15 show that what was nailed to the cross was an act of forgiveness and this because of this, we are no longer held guilty by Satan or man. This is the meaning around which vs 14 must be interpreted. To make this say the 'law' stands out like a punk rocker at a ballroom dance.

Cancelling out any laws not only negates the meaning of the context but completely ignores the entire passage of Colossians 2 which dealt with the pagan heresy of asceticism, angel worship and the judging of leaders to make the people behave and keep festivals a certain way.

If proof-texting out of context makes you happy, then follow it. Just don't get mad when people use Acts 20 to support Sunday keeping or Revelation 14:11 to support eternal torment. They have as much justification to do so as you saying that the ceremonial law is mentioned in Colossians 2. Good luck finding the word.

I'm done here.

[olger]

Could "cheirographon" mean record book of sin?

[True-believer]

Thankyou John317,

I'm glad to hear that!!!

But it it also about the ministration of sin and death no longer playing any part in the law.

We keep and observe God's law in LOVE, thats why Matthew quotes in 12:40, 'And this HANGS on the law and the prophets.'

Loving God and loving our neighbor HANGS on the Ten Commandments.

Thats why we call it the Law of LOVE, OR God's Law of LOVE!!!

We keep it being spiritual minded and not carnel minded.

Because we LOVE to keep and follow and be in obedience to Jesus Christ!!!

Thankyou everyone for your very valuable input to this discussion.

It's been very helpful in my studies.

[jasd]

QR frame:

“There is, however, a grave weakness in Bacchiocchi's argument about the word cheirographon. The meaning of cheirographon as a document of indebtedness is only one meaning of the word in nonbiblical Greek. Lenski points out that cheirographon does not always refer to a debtor's bond but may refer to a labor contract, to a document giving authority to act or even to business agreements. (7) It is misleading, therefore, to say that cheirographon means an instrument for remembering or recording a debt. It simply means a written document. The kind of written document referred to in Colossians 2:14 must be determined by the context.”

“Lenski (commentary on Colossians) says: ’misleading conceptions are introduced when the word (cheirographon) is thought to mean a debtor's bond’ He says the word has been found 13 times, ’five were debtor's bonds, two concerned deposits made, two were labor contracts, one gave authority to act, three were business agreements.’ "

I've noticed that Colossians is being used in correlation with Ephesians 2:15. That being so, it may behoove us to more closely look at

Eph 2:15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, [even] the law (nomos) of commandments (entole) [contained] in ordinances (dogma); for to make in himself of twain one new man, [so] making peace;

We might note that the Law, the Commandments, and the Ordinances – were written ‘documents’.

Seems that St Paul anticipated the parsing which would ensue re his exegesis upon the matter of Jesus Christ abolishing the “enmity” – to wit, note: that he incorporated all aspects, inclusively, of the law, the commandments, and the ordinances – to preclude misunderstanding... as to meaning.

[guibox]

I've noticed that Colossians is being used in correlation with Ephesians 2:15. That being so, it may behoove us to more closely look at

Eph 2:15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, [even] the law (nomos) of commandments (entole) [contained] in ordinances (dogma); for to make in himself of twain one new man, [so] making peace;

We might note that the Law, the Commandments, and the Ordinances – were written ‘documents’

The problem here is that the 'law' (nomos) is not in Colossians 2:14 and the 'cheirographon' is not included in Ephesians 2:15. They are speaking of two different things despite their similarities.

Also, as I said before, verses 13 and 15 do not support any law being nailed to the cross in context, which is the act of, and results of, forgiveness of Christ's sacrifice. Vs 14 shows us the 'how' of vs 13 and the 'what happened because of' in vs 15.

Crucifying the law to the cross does none of these things. Abolishing the law be it ceremonial and especially moral is not going to bring closeness to God and forgiveness that is the basis of Colossians 2.

[John317]

The problem here is that the 'law' (nomos) is not in Colossians 2:14 and the 'cheirographon' is not included in Ephesians 2:15. They are speaking of two different things despite their similarities.

That is falsely arguing that unless Paul uses a particular word-- a word which is only used one time in the entire Bible-- he can't be referring to the law. This is an invalid argument because it's not necessary to include the same metaphor in all passages of scripture dealing with the same subject.

Col. 2:14 uses the word, dogma, which means decree, ordinance, command, decision, requirement. These are synonyms for law.

Notice that Col. 2: 14 describes the "note" or "bond" as containing "legal decrees and demands" (Amplified Bible), an obvious reference to laws.

It's also significant that this word, dogma, only appears one other time in the entire NT. Where else does it occur? In Eph. 2: 15.

Many outstanding Bible scholars believe that Col. 2: 14 and Eph. 2: 15 are referring to the same things. For instance, Conybeare and Howson in their book, The Life and Epistles of St. Paul, p. 697, refer to these verses as "parallel passages." Below you will find evidence that many other Bible scholars concur. John Calvin, Jamieson, Fausset & Brown, Henri Alford, Matthew Henry, and Albert Barnes are also among those scholars who agree.

It should be noted that the same word, cheirographon, refers to "the rules and requirements of the laws of Moses, 3 Macc. i. 3." (Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon, p. 154).

Also consider again the standard Greek-English lexicons:

It was "the bond that stood against us Col. 2: 14" [cheirographon], (Greek-English Lexicon, Bauer). It refers to the Mosaic law: "metaphorically applied in Col. 2: 14 to the Mosaic law, which shows men to be chargeable with offences for which they must pay the penalty" (Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament, p. 668). Robert Young's Literal-- "the handwriting in the ordinances."

"the bond [cheirographon] against us by its decrees" [dogma]." The same word refers to "the rules and requirements of the laws of Moses, 3 Macc. i. 3."(Thayer's Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament)

This is just part of the evidence showing that the fact that Col. 2: 14 does not use the word "nomos" is irrelevant.